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02-14-2013, 09:30 PM | #1 | ||||||
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What is Jewish?
The number of threads I have personally opened in my ten years of participation on this Forum may still be counted on the fingers of one hand.
I therefore think it not unreasonable that I be permitted to open one more, in response to a request I posed and to whose answer I was not permitted to reply. Quote:
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The observing the Seventh Day SABBATH rest, the keeping all of the Scripturally commanded Annual Festivals, High SABBATHS, and Fasts of The Torah. Also diligently teaching the observing of the kosher food laws, as well as the many other injunctions of THE LAW of YHWH, -yet we are not 'Jewish', nor are we any 'christians'. Many gentiles who read The Holy Scriptures endeavored to -KEEP THE COMMANDMENTS-, along with the 'Jewish' people, to the extent of their abilities, pleading the mercy of Ha'Shem in whatever matter beyond their control, or knowledge, in which they might fall short of perfection, Not just the Jews. The Catholic church had a long time problem with these gentile worshipers ('theraputae') that continued to KEEP THE LAWS and to observe THE HOLY SABBATHS and Festivals that were commanded in their Bibles, along with those known as the 'Jews' Quote:
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Now certainly the objection will be raised, this is all about 'Christians'. To this I will point out, just like many of the GENTILES refused and resisted onto death the change in THE Scriptural SABBATH DAY of rest, there were also many SABBATH keeping -GENTILES- who resisted having the invented catholic name of 'Christian' stuffed down their throats, and would chose rather to die being called 'Judaizers' than bending their knees to vile Papal Decrees, threats, and the tortures and murder carried out by the minions of that succession of despotic and murderously evil Roman Pope's. Just because some GENTILES observe all of the the Scripturally mandated SABBATHS and SCRIPTURALLY ordained Festivals -along with the Jewish people, that does not make them 'Jewish'. Even in the Law of Moses, the ger toshavim 'stranger of the gate' ('stranger within thy gates') had NO requirement to be circumcised, to be able love the Elohim of Israel, to thank Him for life's blessings, and to look forward to the fulfillment of His Promises, and to keep THE SABBATHS of YHWH - and praise His Holy Name, -along with- his chosen people Israel. It was a mixed multitude that was 'passed over' and was delivered into The Promised Land. The Jew and the Gentile together, So it was, and so it is that the Scriptures Promise to both Jew and GENTILE alike that call upon His Holy Name. Thus there is nothing that entails that the 'theraputae' of old Alexandria, -or of any other place- ever had to be exclusively 'Jewish'. If Philo knew the Law and the Promises, he would have known what a 'stranger within the gates' was, and of The Law's open accommodation of all such persons. And if he were a learned Jew indeed, in subjection to The Laws of Moses, he would certainly have accepted the presence of any such Gentiles among the 'theraputae' -worshipers. Why, with all conscious deliberation, Philo never once used the word 'Jew' or 'Jewish' when writing of these theraputae 'worshipers'. |
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02-14-2013, 09:43 PM | #2 |
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What is Jewish?
Well that is a excellent question and understudied. When is the real question. Judaism has evolved into its current state. I found pre fall of the temple Judaism to be very interesting because of how diverse and multicultural it had become with Hellenization. Its diversity is why we have Christians. Remember, the names we have for different early sects really depends on "who" is using what term. There is a thin line during these hellenistic times between Proselytes and Jewish, Ive found in the Jewsih encylopedia that Hellenism was accepted with open arms. The line between Proselyte and Jew was very vague depending on geographic location. Im sure real some Israelite Jewish elite circles looked down on Hellenistic Proselytes, where others not only were the norm, they ran the new governement and temple. Wide diversity doesnt even begin to explain what was going on then. |
02-14-2013, 09:43 PM | #3 |
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The Samaritans did not traditionally regard themselves as a race separated from their southern brothers. The Jerusalem altar was an abomination, one which the Samaritans were only too happy to see demolished. Yet at the same time, it is was traditional to assume that if the various sectarians just abandoned their heretical practices and came to the holy mountain of Gerizim as commanded by God himself in the Ten Commandments they would be restored to members in good standing.
The Samaritans referred to themselves Bnei Israel (Sons of Israel). The term 'Jew' and 'Judaism' is inherently problematic. |
02-14-2013, 09:52 PM | #4 |
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Sometimes a race, sometimes a religion.
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02-14-2013, 10:06 PM | #5 | ||||||
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A better question is what does the name Judah (Yehudah) mean. Judah does not come from the root YOD-DALET-HE either. Historically, the root is HE-VAV-DALET. It must be admitted that popular etymology could have connected it with the root YOD-DALET-HE, and it must also be conceded that a speaker of Hebrew in the first c. CE. would have FELT it as having a connection with this root. But the verb is never used in the Qal. It is always in the Hif’il when it means to thank or acknowledge. These forms are not similar enough to Yehudah to make a Hebrew-speaker feel a compelling connection even if historical considerations are left out. That means past tense hodah, future tense yodeh, and participle modeh. The name Yehudah is too far from the hif’il participle for the feeling of connection to be strong. The hitpa’el is used to express the concept of admitting or acknowledging something outside but of personal concern. This means past tense hitvaddah, future tense yitvaddeh, participle mitvaddeh, but these forms aren’t strongly enough connected either. No forms other than the Hif’il and Hitpa’el are used.
Clement claims the name means 'power'. I can't see the connection. Even Philo sees the name means 'confession': Quote:
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02-14-2013, 10:35 PM | #6 |
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02-14-2013, 11:21 PM | #7 | |
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Romans 2:29 seems to use the etymology of the name to define what a Jew is:
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02-14-2013, 11:45 PM | #8 |
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Philo's identification of the name Judas with the LXX terms 'exomologeisthai' and 'exomologesis', (from the verb exomologeo) reinforces that the name was applied to mean one who makes public admission, or 'confessor.' Thus one can make a strong case that the original meaning of 'Jew' or 'Jewish' was 'he who openly confesses God.' In other words, being a Jew was tied to praising God. A related Aramaic word means 'monotheism.'
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02-14-2013, 11:52 PM | #9 | |
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Even the Blessing of Judah the name is so defined - “Hear, O Lord, the voice of Judah. Thou wilt bring him to his people” (Deut 33.7) The Samaritan Asatir similarly defines the Jews as those who confess God and claim that once their temple was established they had no right to the name any longer:
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02-14-2013, 11:57 PM | #10 |
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The first commandment reinforces the importance of confessing God and every berakhah, blessing, begins with the traditional formula praising God as ruler of the universe. So it is not surprising that 'being Jewish' or a Jew is universally understood to start with the confession of the true God. It is also what distinguishes Jews from non-Jews.
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