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12-10-2008, 09:02 PM | #1 | |
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1 Corinthians 15:3-11 -- encore
We've had a lot of discussion in the past over 1 Cor 15:3-11 or, more restrictedly, 15:2-8. I have always worked under the understanding that this is a questionable passage, now here I'll say it is an interpolation. (Now lots of people get uppity because there is no Greek manuscript evidence for an interpolation here, but such an argument in itself works on the unstated assumptions that although there were lots of interference with the biblical texts during the era represented in the manuscript tradition, there wasn't any before then. I hope we can all agree that that is simply another argument based on silence.)
The original form of the passage I think is as follows: 1 Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain. [..] 12 But if Christ is preached, that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead? 13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, not even Christ has been raised; 14 and if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is vain, your faith also is vain. 15 Moreover we are even found to be false witnesses of God, because we testified against God that He raised Christ, whom He did not raise, if in fact the dead are not raised. 16 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised; 17 and if Christ has not been raised, your faith is worthless; you are still in your sins. [..] 19 If we have hoped in Christ in this life only, we are of all men most to be pitied.The interpolation is straightforward in that it implies no change to the surrounding text. But why should I consider that 15:3-11 is an interpolation? I'll consider here only verses 15:3-8, for once they go 9-11 can't stand by themselves. Here is an annotated presentation of the data. Quote:
There are two types of information here, dating issues and information problems. The dating issues are all transparent: 1) the ascendancy of Cephas/Peter, 2) the post-Marcan "on this day" and 3) those fallen asleep being the post-Pauline acknowledgment that the eschaton hadn't come. The non-gospel nature of the appearance to the whopping 500 makes the passage it is in clearly questionable. If you have more issues that reflect on this passage feel free to add them. Mine is not meant as an exhaustive list, but one based on the simplest to present. (I could for example mention the creedal nature of the passage which suggests a post-Pauline organized religion... or the fact that if Paul knew about all these post-resurrection sightings, there would be no need to argue his case in 15:12ff.) ETA: "according to the Scriptures" can be related to Romans 16:26, which mentions the generic "scriptures of the prophets", though this is another passage long thought to be an interpolation by Lightfoot, Renan, Hort et al. Let swords be drawn. spin |
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12-11-2008, 02:15 AM | #2 |
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12-11-2008, 03:42 AM | #3 | |
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12-11-2008, 07:21 AM | #4 | |
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It's not just an argument based on silence. We have extant second century quotes from Fathers that don't agree to any extant text. We also have a license from Irenaeus of Lyons (yes, "Lyons") to kill unorthodox writings of Paul as he claims that Paul sometimes gets carried away with the spirit and writes too fast resulting in transposed words. We also have the common sense observation that after Christianity gains control is when the significant extant manuscripts start. We have the "refutations" of the critics of Christianity but we don't have the criticism. Ad Nazorean. Along these lyons we have indirect textual support for the assertion of this Thread. The orthodox confess to us that Marcion was something of an expert on Paul. The first to compile his letters. We also know that Marcion avoided the orthodox Forged letters of Paul. Marcion was honest compared to the orthodox in that he realized that the Christian Bible god could not be reconciled with the Jewish Bible. Therefore, his Paul would not have had "according to the Scripture". Joseph |
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12-11-2008, 08:38 AM | #5 | |
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I am not sure I want to cross swords here and now on this topic, but I would like some clarification one point:
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12-11-2008, 03:37 PM | #6 | |
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Had the "twelve" been part of the tradition at this early stage, it is hard to understand how the gospel tradition of eleven could have developed. If one supports the notion that there are authentic orally transmitted traditions in 1 Cor 15:3-11, then one negates the veracity of the gospel tradition eleven. However, if this were more an orthodoxy edit then creedal notions rather than veracity can be understood. As you know creeds are meant to help people know what to believe, rather than to get into complexities such as veracity. The creedal nature of the passage is overwhelming. spin |
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12-11-2008, 03:39 PM | #7 |
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Second bite
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12-11-2008, 07:11 PM | #8 | |||
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If this were just an orthodox creedal edit, how could it be reconciled with the equally orthodox gospel tradition, present in canonical Matthew and Luke (and in the Longer Ending to Mark), that Jesus only appeared to eleven disciples? (Interesting that this may be linked to a Q tradition, with the Longer Ending to Mark as an assimilation.) Now, I think there may have been a gospel tradition that didn't name the Eleven, rather than the Twelve--we see a glimpse of it in Jn 20, where Thomas is named as one of the Twelve. So I'm not saying the 1 Corinthians passage is authentic--but it doesn't know the tradition of the Eleven, hence it had no contact with the Q-Mt-Lk tradition, suggesting that even if it isn't authentic Paul, then it came fairly early in the tradition (contemporary perhaps with the earliest layers of gMark and gJohn.) |
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12-11-2008, 08:59 PM | #9 | |||||||
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12-11-2008, 10:12 PM | #10 | |
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People such as Price have argued that vs. 3 is inconsistent with Paul's other claims that his gospel was revealed, and thus conclude an interpolation, which he has seen as ending in vs. 11. However, I say that if you read the rest of the chapter, it flows with the ideas of 3-11. This might argue that 3-11 are genuine if not for the fact that all of chapter 15 is so different from the rest of Paul's writings, and it so conveniently supports all the ideas of a later catholicising movement. I think an unbiased interpretation sees the whole chapter as a later insert. As the nail in the cros..., er um, coffin, let's consider how 1 Cor would flow if 1 Cor 15 were removed altogether. Chapter 14 discusses ideas like what they should do to properly speak in tongues, and to properly worship. Chapter 16 continues this theme of proper behavior. But what of chapter 15? Smack dab in the middle we have an inexplicable discussion of basic doctrines that certainly needed no explanation. Look at the flow if we remove chapter 15 altogether: Contrast this when chapter 15 is inserted: In the first scenario, we have a seemless flow of commands about what to do from Paul to the Corinthians. In the 2nd scenario, we have that flow interrupted by a reminder of what his gospel is and to stand firm in it (including the bizarre stuff about baptism for the dead). If there were no modern Christians, I think there would be universal agreement among scholars that chapter 15 is a later insert entirely, not just in part. |
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