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Old 05-26-2009, 12:42 PM   #1
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Default Similarity of Hebrew and Aramaic

I have read few times that Hebrew and Aramaic were pretty similar languages.

Now I took some time to study the "language relationship tree" on wikipedia, and it divides Northwest Semitic languages into three categories: Ugaritic, Canaanite (including Hebrew) and Aramaic. Canaanite languages include Hebrew, Phoenician, Moabite, etc...

That seems as if Aramaic was in fact quite different from Hebrew. At least more different than Phoenician, and as different as Ugaritic (names from Ras Shamra texts seemed quite different compared to Hebrew names, to me).

So, how much difference is there? Would Aramaic speaker understand spoken Hebrew (and also, spoken Ugaritic or Phoenician language)? When preacher was reading scripture to Aramaic speakers in Second Temple times, did he have to do some on-the-fly Hebrew to Aramaic translation in order for people to understand?
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Old 05-26-2009, 01:14 PM   #2
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Hebrew and Aramaic were not mutually comprehensible.

In 2 Kings 18:26 the Jewish civil servants ask the Assyrian envoy to speak in Aramaic not Hebrew in order to prevent the ordinary citizens following the negotiations.

Later on (centuries later on) Aramaic Targums of the Hebrew Bible were produced, partly as a paraphrase to explain difficult passages, but mainly so that Aramaic speakers had a version of Scripture that they could understand.

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Old 05-26-2009, 01:14 PM   #3
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My impression is that certain words might be understandable but that it would be difficult to follow a conversation. It might be equivalent to Spanish and Portugese.

Gershom Scholem did a fascinating analysis of why the Zohar was written by one person in 13th century Spain. The author was a rabbi who was fluent in Hebrew but whose Aramaic was relatively rudimentary.

One of the things that I've learned in the last few years is that most rabbis don't know Aramaic. I was astounded by that.

2 Kings 18:18:26 describes the Assyrian siege of Jerusalem, where the Assyrian negotiators were urged to speak in Aramaic instead of Hebrew so the average people would not be freaked out.

Quote:
Then Eliakim the son of Hilkiah, and Shebnah and Joah, said to Rabshakeh, "Speak now to your servants in Aramaic, for we understand it; and do not speak with us in Judean in the hearing of the people who are on the wall."
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Old 05-26-2009, 02:02 PM   #4
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Quote:
One of the things that I've learned in the last few years is that most rabbis don't know Aramaic. I was astounded by that.
They study Talmud, which is mostly in 5-6th century CE Aramaic, but to my knowledge their facility with the language is passive - they do not communicate in the language. And of course do not know more modern forms of the language (such as spoken by some groups in northern Iraq and the region).
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Old 05-27-2009, 11:38 AM   #5
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Quote:
Darius: 522-486 BC

During the long rule of Darius I, the conquests of Cyrus and Cambyses are consolidated and the Achaemenid empire reaches its greatest extent - from Macedonia in the west to northern India in the east. Never before has such a large area, including so many people of different cultures and traditions, been controlled under a single system.

The genius of Darius lies in creating a workable structure for the empire. This depends on such details as a sustainable system of taxation; a communication network based on good roads and efficient message-carrying; a single language, Aramaic, used in government documents throughout the empire; and firm control in the armed forces.
Read more: http://www.historyworld.net/wrldhis/...xzz0GjX7M4Gy&B
http://www.historyworld.net/wrldhis/...historyid=aa65

Hmm - the Persian Empire again...

(What is the date of the incident in 2 Kings?)
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Old 05-27-2009, 11:49 AM   #6
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http://books.google.com/books?id=tRY...esult&resnum=7

Sargon and Sennacherib, contains brief history of Aramaic in its context.
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Old 05-27-2009, 12:11 PM   #7
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Deep links to Google Books tend to cause problems:

Esther's revenge at Susa By Stephanie Dalley page 11

Amazon link (or via: amazon.co.uk)
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Old 05-27-2009, 01:04 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post
(What is the date of the incident in 2 Kings?)
Probably 701 BCE

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Old 05-27-2009, 01:16 PM   #9
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What is it about some languages and if they change? I find the kjv hard and that is only four hundred years ago - Aramaic we are talking at least twelve hundred years. English did not really exist in 1100!
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Old 05-27-2009, 03:05 PM   #10
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Thanks to all of you. I wonder why many of articles I have read gave idea that languages are pretty close and the difference is not that important (especially ones about "Jesus' real name").
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