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Old 02-23-2006, 07:52 AM   #1
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Default The "law" in John 10:34

Given:
  • Jhn 10:30 I and [my] Father are one.
  • Jhn 10:31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
  • Jhn 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
  • Jhn 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
  • Jhn 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
The last verse is a reference to Psalm 82. Are there other examples of "the Law" or "your law" being used to include/reference writings other than those found in the Torah? Thanks.
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Old 02-23-2006, 08:26 AM   #2
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Originally Posted by ConsequentAtheist
Are there other examples of "the Law" or "your law" being used to include/reference writings other than those found in the Torah? Thanks.
The most obvious example comes from Matthew 5:17-18:

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17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets; I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not one letter, not one stroke of a letter, will pass from the law until all is accomplished.
Another instance is 1 Corinthians 14:21 in which Paul quotes Isaiah 28:11-12 yet refers to the quotation as "in the law."
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Old 02-23-2006, 10:23 AM   #3
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Thank you.

Matthew 5:17-18 does not appear to be referring to particular text.

The reference to Isaiah is more what I'm looking for though here, too, it seems less jarring than does a reference to Psalms - if only because the Nevi'im served as the source of the haftarot.

The reference to Psalms 82 in John still seems strange to me.
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Old 02-23-2006, 11:15 AM   #4
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Originally Posted by ConsequentAtheist
Matthew 5:17-18 does not appear to be referring to particular text.
Correct. The term "law and prophets" means the entire Hebrew Bible.

Quote:
Originally Posted by ConsequentAtheist
The reference to Psalms 82 in John still seems strange to me.
See John 15:25, which refers to Psalm 69:4, for another example of "law" referring to a Psalm.
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Old 02-23-2006, 12:21 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by John Kesler
Correct. The term "law and prophets" means the entire Hebrew Bible.
Does it? To whom, and based on what evidence? Certainly the term 'Tanakh' refers to the law (Torah), the Prophets (Nevi'im), and the Writings (Ketuvim), with the Psalms being part of the latter.

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Originally Posted by John Kesler
See John 15:25, which refers to Psalm 69:4, for another example of "law" referring to a Psalm.
Or Psalm 35:19 - but we already know that the author of John references the Psalms as such. I wonder if there is extra-Biblical writing that does likewise.
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Old 02-23-2006, 02:05 PM   #6
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Originally Posted by ConsequentAtheist
I wonder if there is extra-Biblical writing that does likewise.
There is one that comes to mind. In the Talmud (b. Sanh. 91b) one finds:
"R. Yehoshua ben Levi said: 'Where [do we find an allusion] to the resurrection of the dead in the Torah? For it is stated [in Psalm 84.5]: "Happy are those who dwell in Your house; yet again shall they praise You, selah." It does not say, "they have praised You," but rather "they will praise You," [i.e., after the resurrection]. Here [we find an allusion] to the resurrection of the dead in the Torah.'"
(A midrash that also comes to mind, Numbers Rabbah 13.15, refers to "the twenty-four books of the written Torah," meaning, of course, the entire Hebrew Bible.)

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Old 02-23-2006, 03:33 PM   #7
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Originally Posted by ConsequentAtheist
Does it? To whom, and based on what evidence? Certainly the term 'Tanakh' refers to the law (Torah), the Prophets (Nevi'im), and the Writings (Ketuvim), with the Psalms being part of the latter.
I think that based on the way that "law and prophets" is used, such as in the "Golden Rule" (Matthew 7:12), an inference can be made that more than just two of three Tanakh divisions is in view. It so happens that The New Jerome Biblical Commentary agrees with me. On page 641, commenting on Matthew 5:17, it says the following:

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the law and the prophets: A formula frequent in Matthew (7:12; 11:13; 22:40), it refers to the whole of God's revelation in the OT.
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Old 02-23-2006, 06:42 PM   #8
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There is one that comes to mind. In the Talmud (b. Sanh. 91b) one finds: ...
Excellent. Thanks.
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