Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Newton's Cat · 08-12-2006, 07:14 PM

It is my perception that Romans 1,18 etc. was written by a different author to the one who wrote 1,1-17. Romans 1,1-17 is a "stand-alone" tract. Is there any body of scholarly opinion that agrees with this? It seems to me that what is being said in Romans 1 from verse 18 onwards doesn't "fit" with the ideology of verses 1-17.

Paul didn't write verse 18 etc.

Gamera · 08-14-2006, 03:52 PM

One of the major mistakes of philologists is to assume contradictions or difficulties in a text reflect redaction. Since all texts contain contradictions (an insight of post modernism), this standard essentially leads to the conclusion the every text has multiple authors.

Worse, it fails to explore the meanings of the contradictions, which is the purpose of hermeneutics.

Discern "contradictions" in a text is a totally discredited way to discuss authorship.

08-12-2006, 07:14 PM	#1
Newton's Cat Veteran Member Join Date: Jul 2005 Location: London, UK Posts: 3,181	Romans 1,18 etc. It is my perception that Romans 1,18 etc. was written by a different author to the one who wrote 1,1-17. Romans 1,1-17 is a "stand-alone" tract. Is there any body of scholarly opinion that agrees with this? It seems to me that what is being said in Romans 1 from verse 18 onwards doesn't "fit" with the ideology of verses 1-17. Paul didn't write verse 18 etc.

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08-14-2006, 03:52 PM	#2
Gamera Banned Join Date: Apr 2006 Location: Palm Springs, California Posts: 10,955	One of the major mistakes of philologists is to assume contradictions or difficulties in a text reflect redaction. Since all texts contain contradictions (an insight of post modernism), this standard essentially leads to the conclusion the every text has multiple authors. Worse, it fails to explore the meanings of the contradictions, which is the purpose of hermeneutics. Discern "contradictions" in a text is a totally discredited way to discuss authorship.

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