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Old 12-31-2011, 06:09 PM   #51
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My arguments are developed from the massive integrity exceptions that I perceive in the contemporary hegemonic narrative of "Early Christian Origins" when compared against the ancient historical evidence of two separate time epochs - a) 000-325 CE and b) 325-444 CE.
Those exceptions only exist because of the massive gaps in your awareness of the texts, the archaeology, and the scholarship.

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Maybe Jesus was originally known as "Jesus the Good" and his followers were called "The Good Guys"?
Nope. Jesus was unquestionably known as the Christ from the very beginning. I've shown that already. You've not responded.

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You have evidence supporting such a far-out hypothesis, and the Manichaean manuscript evidence dated late 4th century supports the identification of "Jesus Chrestos".
The New Testament manuscript from the second to fourth centuries supports the primacy of Jesus Christ.

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It's just rather strange to be aware of the supposed fact that the supposed Christians first supposedly called themselves "Christians" in Antioch according to Acts, but one of the oldest sources (late 4th century) reveals them to have called themselves "Chrestians".
As I've already shown, that spelling is demonstrably secondary.

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Sure, scribes do make mistakes. We all make mistakes. I have no enmity towards those who make honest mistakes. I might be making a mistake with the 4th century "Big Bang" hypothesis, and you might be making a mistake with the Marcionite origins. I can live with that and without enmity. Can you?
I make mistakes all the time, and I acknowledge them when they're pointed out to me. Your errors have been pointed out to you repeatedly and you refuse to acknowledge them.
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Old 12-31-2011, 11:52 PM   #52
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We are looking for credible ancient historical sources that make explicit mention of "Jesus Christos" and/or "Jesus Chrestos" and/or "Christians" and/or "Chrestians" and so far you have pointed at a 4th century codex.
I have also pointed out that the entire New Testament, from the beginning, used the names Jesus and Christ. It's is fundamental to the entire gospel presented throughout the New Testament. Whenever you date the composition of the New Testament, that's when Jesus and Christ start.
I disagree with your notion that the abbreviated (nomina sacra) form of Jesus and Christ are unambiguously transliteratable as the full and explicit form of Jesus and Christ. The original article cited rejects your assertion as follows:

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The earliest fragments and codex of the New Testament pre-date the fourth century, though nowhere in them have we found the key word Christ. Many biblical scholars claim that they do, but our visual inspection of them fails to find a single such usage of this term. We have been unable to find a single text transliterated correctly in this regard.

As there are gospels and other texts of a religious character, so there is archaeology for places of worship and many artefacts: none spell Christian. Claims that any are Christian are, in fact, a matter of opinion only and we disagree with all such opinions.

Do you have a single text transliterated correctly with the key word Christ on it? I dont think there are any early exemplars of this.
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Old 12-31-2011, 11:58 PM   #53
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Many biblical scholars claim that they do, but our visual inspection of them fails to find a single such usage of this term. We have been unable to find a single text transliterated correctly in this regard.
Why do you keep citing that insipid History Hunters article? Maklelan has actual academic credentials. I don't even know this guy from Adam. I am not his friend. We don't bowl together. But I respect him as I respect anyone who should have better things to do and actually bothers to crawl into this sewer and actually engage some of the rats who live here.

Do you think you are Maklelan's equal on any subject related to the Jewish-Christian tradition? I don't know where you get your authority. You don't believe in God so you can't think that you received some divine epiphany about the truth so how is it that some new guy who actually took the time to formally study the material isn't supposed to be respect by at least some of the vermin here? Here are his academic credentials:

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I received my bachelors degree from Brigham Young University in ancient Near Eastern studies, where I focused on Biblical Hebrew and minored in Classical Greek. I recently completed a master of studies degree in Jewish studies at the University of Oxford and am currently pursuing a master of arts degree in biblical studies at Trinity Western University just outside of Vancouver, BC. In addition to my courses, I work for Peter Flint and Martin Abegg on Dead Sea Scrolls-related topics. While I have a number of research interests that wrangle for what free time I have available, my areas of specialization are Second Temple Judaism, early Israelite religion, and textual criticism of the Hebrew Bible. At Oxford I focused on Second Temple Judaism, and my thesis was entitled “Anti-Anthropomorphism and the Vorlage of LXX Exodus.” My thesis at Trinity Western University will focus on the development of monotheism within Judaism. I hope to reincorporate, after my masters degrees, the study of Pre-exilic Israel, Ugaritic, Aramaic, Akkadian, and the less objective work of guessing what the early Israelites really believed and how those beliefs changed over time.
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Old 01-01-2012, 01:30 AM   #54
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Here are all the references to Christianoi in Athenagoras in a Plea for the Christians - four of them. The first can be read to imply that 'Christian' was something which was applied to the members of the Jesus sect from outsiders:

And accordingly, with admiration of your mildness and gentleness, and your peaceful and benevolent disposition towards every man, individuals live in the possession of equal rights; and the cities, according to their rank, share in equal honour; and the whole empire, under your intelligent sway, enjoys profound peace. But for us who are called Christians (ἡμεῖς δὲ οἱ λεγόμενοι Χριστιανοί) you have not in like manner cared; but although we commit no wrong— nay, as will appear in the sequel of this discourse, are of all men most piously and righteously disposed towards the Deity and towards your government— you allow us to be harassed, plundered, and persecuted, the multitude making war upon us for our name alone. [1.1]

and again:

If, indeed, any one can convict us of a crime, be it small or great, we do not ask to be excused from punishment, but are prepared to undergo the sharpest and most merciless inflictions. But if the accusation relates merely to our name (δὲ μέχρις ὀνόματος ἡ κατηγορία)— and it is undeniable, that up to the present time the stories told about us rest on nothing better than the common undiscriminating popular talk, nor has any Christian been convicted of crime— it will devolve on you, illustrious and benevolent and most learned sovereigns, to remove by law this despiteful treatment, so that, as throughout the world both individuals and cities partake of your beneficence, we also may feel grateful to you, exulting that we are no longer the victims of false accusation.

and again:

What, therefore, is conceded as the common right of all, we claim for ourselves, that we shall not be hated and punished because we are called Christians (μὴ ὅτι Χριστιανοὶ λεγόμεθα μισεῖσθαι καὶ κολά ζεσθαι) - for what has the name to do with our being bad men - but be tried on any charges which may be brought against us, and either be released on our disproving them, or punished if convicted of crime— not for the name (for no Christian is a bad man unless he falsely profess our doctrines), but for the wrong which has been done.
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Old 01-01-2012, 07:27 AM   #55
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Do you have a single text transliterated correctly with the key word Christ on it? I dont think there are any early exemplars of this.
I don't have an early one where it is spelled out, but as I've shown, the very text of the New Testament makes it absolutely clear that Jesus and Christ are original. The explanation for the naming of Jesus simply makes no sense at all if you insist the nomen sacrum there obscures any other name besides Jesus. The quotations of Old Testament verses that call a specific figure "anointed" simply make no sense if you insist the nomina sacra there obscure the word "Chrestos," especially where the next verses states that Jesus was that one anointed by God. It's simply nonsensical to insist that these nomina sacra originally obscured anything other than the names Jesus and Christ. It's even more nonsensical to posit that in those verses they mean Jesus and Christ, but everywhere else they mean Chrestos and whatever else you think Jesus was called. The only evidence that is available points unambiguously and unequivocally to the names Jesus and Christ and nothing else.
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Old 01-01-2012, 10:10 AM   #56
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But the Marcionite gospel didn't read connect Jesus with Christos. None of the Marcionite scholars have ever figured out why Chrestos was preferred. They know Jesus was wholly divine for the Marcionites. My assumption has always been there is a pronounced Jewishness about the Marcionites (Aram “those of Mark”). I can't shake the idea that Chrestos has something to do with yashar and yashar with the (angelic) name Israel.

The ultimate question is Ephrem's report about the Syriac name Isu. Is this just a Syriac rendering of the Greek Iesous used perhaps by the Marcionites in Edessa or a wholly different root (like Clement and the other Fathers who think Jesus's name has root other than “to save”

Still playing superheroes
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Old 01-01-2012, 04:09 PM   #57
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But the Marcionite gospel didn't read connect Jesus with Christos.
But it also suggested the God of the Old Testament was not the God of the New Testament. That's clearly quite a significant disconnect from the New Testament. Marcionite beliefs don't reflect earliest Christian ideologies. They derive from the synthesis of specific Christian ideals and gnostic cosmology.

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None of the Marcionite scholars have ever figured out why Chrestos was preferred.
The Redeemer God of Marcionite faith was a rejection of the Jewish Messiah, or Christ. The common name Chrestos was just a natural replacement, given they were taking over many texts where the name Christ appeared. The propensity of Romans to misunderstand the name Christian and the popularity of the wordplay among Christians made it all the more convenient.

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They know Jesus was wholly divine for the Marcionites. My assumption has always been there is a pronounced Jewishness about the Marcionites (Aram “those of Mark”). I can't shake the idea that Chrestos has something to do with yashar and yashar with the (angelic) name Israel.
The name Israel has direct reference to El, the deity of the Hebrew Bible. Marcionites rejected that deity.

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The ultimate question is Ephrem's report about the Syriac name Isu. Is this just a Syriac rendering of the Greek Iesous used perhaps by the Marcionites in Edessa or a wholly different root (like Clement and the other Fathers who think Jesus's name has root other than “to save”

Still playing superheroes
I don't think there's much of a chance of determining what it meant with any degree of confidence.

By the way, you may be interested in this article, which talks about two early manuscripts of 1 Peter dating to the late third or early fourth century CE where the scribes have changed the original adjective χρηστος from 1 Peter 2:3 to χριστος, thus, instead of "taste and see that the Lord is good," they read, "that Christ is Lord." This shows that prior to Nicea we already have Christian scribes pushing back against the secondary use of χρηστος (and overcompensating here).
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Old 01-01-2012, 05:24 PM   #58
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I think I am fully up to speed on (a) what the Patristic reports say about the sect and (b) what lazy scholarship has done with it. I have likened it to developing knowledge about the Jews exclusively from Hamas TV, Mein Kampf and the Protocols of Zion.
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Old 01-01-2012, 06:18 PM   #59
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Many biblical scholars claim that they do, but our visual inspection of them fails to find a single such usage of this term. We have been unable to find a single text transliterated correctly in this regard.
Why do you keep citing that insipid History Hunters article? Maklelan has actual academic credentials.
The author of the History Hunters article also has actual academic credentials as well. See the about page.


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I don't even know this guy from Adam. I am not his friend. We don't bowl together. But I respect him as I respect anyone who should have better things to do and actually bothers to crawl into this sewer and actually engage some of the rats who live here.

It's a two way street.


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Do you think you are Maklelan's equal on any subject related to the Jewish-Christian tradition?

In regard to any subject related to "Pagans, Jews and Christians" as defined by the book of the same name by Arnaldo Momigliano, I think I may be Maklelan's equal on the subject of the Pagans. But one thing I am absolutely sure about is the fact that we are all students, and in that sense we are all equal.


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I don't know where you get your authority. You don't believe in God ....
Nobody has ever bothered to ask me this, but I think the theology of Plotinus is cool.
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Old 01-01-2012, 06:27 PM   #60
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Here are all the references to Christianoi in Athenagoras in a Plea for the Christians - four of them.
But from which century does the earliest physical manuscript that we have for the fragments of this supposed text from Athenagorus derive?

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Athenagoras (Greek: Ἀθηναγόρας ὁ Ἀθηναῖος; ca. 133 – 190) was a Father of the Church, a Proto-orthodox Christian apologist who lived during the second half of the 2nd century of whom little is known for certain, besides that he was Athenian (though possibly not originally from Athens), a philosopher, and a convert to Christianity. In his writings he styles himself as "Athenagoras, the Athenian, Philosopher, and Christian". There is some evidence that he was a Platonist before his conversion, but this is not certain.
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