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Old 07-11-2010, 02:30 AM   #61
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I see.
But since Marcion's rudimentary canon included Luke's gospel [so says Waite], and you say he was not its author [which many agree with], could he have gotten it from somebody anonymous in Rome?
As for 1 Timothy being post-Marcion, it sounds possible, because of the word "antithesis" at 6:20, which could be the result of strife between prevalent factions [Some in the "catholic" churches had read Marcion's treatise "Antitheses"].
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