Julio

"Women should remain silent in the churches.
They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says."
NIV

Why did Paul appeal to the Law?
[Where in the Law of Moses does it say such a thing?... And they must be in submission to what?...]

Toto

It seems most likely that Paul did not write this, as he worked with women who prophesied in the churches. It is probably a later interpolation, possibly by someone who had a problem with a particular woman preacher.

http://bible.cc/1_corinthians/14-34.htm

This source can only suggest Gen 3:16 as the "law" that is referred to, but this says nothing about women preaching in public.

This verse gives evangelical Christians a lot of problems, and they have spent a considerable amount of time trying to work around it.

MrFrosty

Moved to BCH.

maryhelena

Why not try another approach - one not taking Paul literally in this case. Try a figurative approach. Women representing our intellectual or spiritual ability - and man representing out bodily, physical reality. Thus: ideas (represented by 'women') need to be subject to reality (represented by 'men') in order to have some relevance to our lives. Free floating ideas, floating abstractions, might well be interesting as novelties etc - but the real deal is when our ideas are subject to, relate to, our physical realities. In other words, in Paul' terms - when women are subject to men....

dog-on

Fits better as an anti Marcion insertion, Mary.

DrZoidberg

Slightly off topic. In a Swedish debate when a female fundie Christian was arguing against homosexuality with the Swedish archbishop of the church of Sweden, he answered with this quote. Then he added, "be careful with how you read the Bible." The church of Sweden is very pro-gay and we have a whole bunch of gay priests, and sex positive priests. Priests who make too much noise against gay priests have been fired.

maryhelena

But if it is not an insertion - then depending upon the dating of Paul - if his letters were written, lets say for the sake of argument, 10 years from the destruction of Jerusalem - then Paul' point re women subject to men would be earlier than Marcion. Marcion or not - I don't think I'd be buying Paul' argument if taken literally. So, I'll be giving him the benefit of doubt and appeal to his better angels.....:angel:

dog-on

From my understanding, women played active roles in the Marcionite churches. The early catholics had a differing view and made Paul fit that view.

Julio

Would you see that as an acceptable possibility?
In that case, where would the text switch from the allegorical/figurative to literal?
I think the best approach is to understand the verse literally.
But I'm here to learn.

Julio

Oh!
That is a very interesting point.
Was Marcion offended with women speaking in tongues or trying to lecture to men?