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04-28-2005, 04:59 PM | #21 |
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Wallener, what are you arguing for? That there is some purely objective way of determining what the biblical texts mean?
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04-28-2005, 06:20 PM | #22 | |
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Hey! Looks like the reviewer did lead me on. Very sorry. Because if CJD has correctly characterized Vanhoozer, than the below is pretty much what I believe. The whole purpose of methodology is to keep baggage in check....
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So, I think I must respectfully reject your characterization of Vanhoozer. Vanhoozer's "determinate meaning" really means What My Interpretation of Reformed Theology Says About The Text. Vorkosigan |
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04-28-2005, 06:23 PM | #23 | |
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Put another way: I find Vanhoozer more circuitous, but no less circular, than the usual band of exegists. |
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04-29-2005, 05:50 AM | #24 | |
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In other words, what difference does it mean in the end if the so-called 'infallible' meaning can never be attained? He might affirm there is one; you do not; but both cannot get to it. This does not mean, of course, that one is unable to get at a meaning, or that one meaning is preferable, if not more plausible, than another (If Vanhoozer then thinks that this particular meaning carries authoritative weight, what do you care? I mean, it's not as if he'll be dashing babies' heads on rocks or anything.). What this does, in contradistinction to what Wallener seems to be arguing, is that despite our circularity, we can indeed do responsible interpretive criticism. Please don't play the positivist with me (Wallener); the blade cuts both ways. CJD |
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04-29-2005, 07:52 AM | #25 | |||
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But I read him as saying in that last line that contradictions are the result of human error, and do not exist in the text. Quote:
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04-29-2005, 08:29 AM | #26 | |
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04-29-2005, 08:53 AM | #27 | ||
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I didn't read Vanhoozer as saying the contradictions per se were the result of human error; I read him saying that the contradictory interpretations we come up with are the result of human error. Some, to be sure, may only be apparent, and thus they may actually complement each other. But his point, again, is that a meaning can be attained. Whether or not he thinks errors exist in the original text is entirely irrelevant (because the originals don't exist). Remember, he doesn't ascribe 'inerrancy' to the copies. If you think that it profoundly Quote:
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04-29-2005, 08:56 AM | #28 |
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As usual, I'm having difficulties getting to the nub of this thread.
Is someone saying that a series of words woven together must have some meaning independent of what meaning various readers assign to it? An answer to that question, with a brief clarification, would help me no end. |
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