FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 04-28-2005, 06:30 AM   #1
CJD
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: greater Orlando area
Posts: 832
Default Vanhoozer

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vork
Here is a review of Vanhoozer's book on Findarticles.

As you can see, Vanhoozer is one of those Reformed Theology yammerheads, who <guffaw> believes in "properly basic" beliefs.

Quote:
"After having secured a role for the author at the level of the communicative act, Vanhoozer turns to the issue of the text. He argues, taking his cue from Reformed epistemology, that the belief in determinate textual meaning is properly basic."
What is a proper basic belief?
Quote:
"This is a belief not based on evidence, but rather on intuition, or what Reid calls common sense."
<ROFL>

"A determinate textual meaning is properly basic?" Looks like a culturally relative and utterly derived belief to me.
This is what I'd expect from someone merely reading a review. <insert a wisecrack about sugar plums and chiasms here> Don't blame Vanhoozer for that reviewer's failure.

Vanhoozer argues quite clearly on pp. 288ff. that the belief that there is a determinate textual meaning (as opposed to the deconstructionist's indeterminate supposition) is properly basic. In other words, it goes against common sense to suggest that a text has no determinate meaning, or rather a variety of 'meanings' based on the varied readings of every reader. From page 289:

Quote:
When our cognitive faculties are working properly, we should not have to produce evidence or attempt to justify the existence of minds in our neighbors. Similarly, we need not prove that there is meaning (e.g., the intentional agency of another person) in the text. When reading a book, we just find ourselves ascribing things to the author. The belief that there is something there … does not have to be demonstrated; it is a properly basic belief. With regard to human action, we properly impute intentionality; in the case of texts, we properly impute communicative intention.
If you would spend a little less time looking for an opportunity to antagonize, Vork, you would not now be chomping on your shoe.

Best,

CJD
CJD is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:20 AM   #2
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2005
Location: Vancouver
Posts: 1,043
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by CJD
Vanhoozer argues quite clearly on pp. 288ff. that the belief that there is a determinate textual meaning (as opposed to the deconstructionist's indeterminate supposition) is properly basic.
Since there is no external way of determining "determinate textual meaning", you are right back to everybody bringing their own "determinate textual meaning" to the text. And that is functionally equivalent to deconstructionism.
Wallener is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:22 AM   #3
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
that the belief that there is a determinate textual meaning (as opposed to the deconstructionist's indeterminate supposition) is properly basic.
Yes, and that belief is culturally situated and derived from numerous other beliefs. There is no such thing as a properly basic belief. All beliefs exist in networks of other beliefs and values. There is no escape from that. Reformed theology is an exercise in reifying culturally and locally situated values as absolutes.

Further, the text clearly does NOT have a determinate meaning. Many Biblical writings are parabolic or allegorical or symbolic (what is the meaning of "bread" in the Synoptic tradition? What is the determinate meaning of Mark 15:39? What is the determinate meaning of "Son of Man" in the Synoptic Tradition, Ezekiel, and elsewhere?). In many places authors appear to have meant many things simultaneously. And when they engage in puns and wordplay, sending Shaul down to Sheol, what do you think the "determinate" meaning is?

Quote:
If you would spend a little less time looking for an opportunity to antagonize, Vork, you would not now be chomping on your shoe.
The reason that I chew on my shoe is that leather is a lot chewier than lightweight Reformed Theology.

HOWEVER. I will read this book when I get the chance. That I promise.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:23 AM   #4
CJD
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: greater Orlando area
Posts: 832
Default

You misunderstand. There is a way. Vanhoozer is speaking of the belief itself.

[edited to add: response to Wallener]
CJD is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:33 AM   #5
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2005
Location: Vancouver
Posts: 1,043
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by CJD
You misunderstand. There is a way. Vanhoozer is speaking of the belief itself.
I completely understand. The point is that a belief consistent across many individuals does not arise from the texts themselves. We have about 3000 years worth of existence proof on that point. That means such a belief has to come from outside the texts, which in turn means it comes from the cultural milieu the reader is embedded in.

His argument is simply put: the Bible has a determinate meaning if people bring their basic beliefs to the book instead of deriving them from the book. He is arguing from Derrida-Land.
Wallener is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:41 AM   #6
CJD
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: greater Orlando area
Posts: 832
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Yes, and that belief is culturally situated and derived from numerous other beliefs. There is no such thing as a properly basic belief. All beliefs exist in networks of other beliefs and values.
I understand this quite well. I am no Reformed epistemologist. That said, the notion that all belief is socially located does not undermine Reid's (or Plantiga's or Vanhoozer's) view here. Everybody reifies their culturally and locally situated values as absolutes — especially when multiple generations are involved. These are the basics of the sociology of knowledge. The respectable position is knowing that, and holding to those 'absolutes' but loosely. But we have to get on with it, we have to say this or that text means this; we inevitably reify, or else you have Stanley Fish saying his laundry list is the best poem every written.

Quote:
Further, the text clearly does NOT have a determinate meaning.
By determinate, Vanhoozer simply means that the author's text has intent, and that there are means to get at it. Your examples are not antithetical to this, they in fact exemplify the need for responsible, socio-grammatical interpretive criticism.

All in fun, Vork.

CJD
CJD is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 07:45 AM   #7
CJD
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: greater Orlando area
Posts: 832
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
His argument is simply put: the Bible has a determinate meaning if people bring their basic beliefs to the book instead of deriving them from the book. He is arguing from Derrida-Land.
You don't seem to understand. It is not either/or. Vanhoozer is taking neither a deconstructionist position nor a dogmatic (or fundamentalist) position. He recognizes that meaning from a text comes both from the baggage people bring to it as well as methods employed to 'get at' the author's intent. And the latter is supposed to keep the former in check as much as possible.

[edited to add:
Quote:
Wallener wrote: The point is that a belief consistent across many individuals does not arise from the texts themselves.
The 'belief' I am speaking of is the belief that a text has meaning, not a belief in this or that meaning. Are we speaking about the same thing?]
CJD is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:07 AM   #8
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Republic and Canton of Geneva
Posts: 5,756
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by CJD
The 'belief' I am speaking of is the belief that a text has meaning, not a belief in this or that meaning. Are we speaking about the same thing?]
Hmm, aren't you actually arguing that the belief that a text has a determinate textual meaning is properly basic?

Luxie
post tenebras lux is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:11 AM   #9
Moderator -
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Twin Cities, Minnesota
Posts: 4,639
Default

Even if we assume the author had an intent (putting aside issues of multiple authorship, redaction, and authors' reinterpretations/recontextualizations of earlier material), there is still no way to determine from the text alone, exactly what that intent was.
Diogenes the Cynic is offline  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:12 AM   #10
CJD
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: greater Orlando area
Posts: 832
Default

Luxie,
Vanhoozer argues that, yes. Would he argue for something more fixed than that? Maybe. But this is our thread now.
CJD is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 07:49 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.