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Old 09-28-2005, 05:49 PM   #161
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I am not using the Amazon review to disprove the derivation of Bethesda, which I have no opinion on. I am using it to indicate that Thayer's is not an undisputed authority.
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Old 09-28-2005, 06:22 PM   #162
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
Maybe.
As I mentioned in a subsequent post to the one you replied to there was Chaldiac aramaic known as Imperial Mesopotamian Aramaic, and there was Assyrian Aramaic.

Those jews who spent time in babylon would have spoken the former whilst those of assyrian descent and influence (galileans) would have spoken the latter.
I thought Jews were not Assyrian, Wasn't it Israel that Jesus claimed were the only ones he came for? The lost sheep (tribes) of the house of Israel, who had been dispalced by the Assyrians?.

the Jews were from babylon.. the house of judah, which was what? Judah and Benjamin and some Levites? The rest were the dispersion, 10 tribes lost.
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Old 09-28-2005, 06:32 PM   #163
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Originally Posted by Toto
I am not using the Amazon review to disprove the derivation of Bethesda, which I have no opinion on. I am using it to indicate that Thayer's is not an undisputed authority.
Well, maybe I shuold have said that an Amazon opinion can't hold much weight against any Authority that has not been proven to be disputed by another Authority , especially on the topic being disputed. I'll still wait for another Authority to be posted with specifics. I'm not paying 125 to find out for myself.
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Old 09-28-2005, 06:54 PM   #164
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A casual web search turns up this discussion on whether Bethesda is derived from Hebrew or Aramaic:

Bethesda with reply, which are mostly too technical for me.

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. . . Randall Buth suggests five possibilities, any of which could result in the Greek Bethesda: Hebrew beth-eshed (house of a waterfall) or Hebrew/Aramaic bet-Hesed/Hesda (house of grace) or a Greek loanword, bet-estyav (house of pillars) or bet-za'atha (house of the movement) or bet-zayta (house of the olive). Note that the (Hebrew) Copper Scroll does list a place possibly named BYT )$DTYN; this could be an Aramaic name in a Hebrew text.
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It is worth noting that the Greek New Testament text from which the name Bethesda is taken, John 5:2, there is a considerable variety of spellings. The Nestle-Aland text prefers BHQZAQA (Bethzatha), as in Sinaiticus. Several MSS have BHQSAIDA (Bethsaida). Many MSS read BHQESDA (Bethesda) but these do not include the oldest ones. I would surmise that John actually wrote BHQZAQA, perhaps based on a colloquial pronunciation of the name, but that this was later corrected to the more probable and perhaps more accurate BHQESDA.
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Old 09-28-2005, 06:55 PM   #165
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Originally Posted by spin
It is possible. You find modern examples in which local varieties of a language, plus the more generic "regional" variety, are spoken. But this is probably not the case. I didn't mention that the dialects were spoken, one of them being biblical Hebrew, but the two others show signs of pronunciation concerns, so they were obviously spoken. The question then must be asked whether they were spoken in the same place, but I don't know how to answer that. I can conceive of two separate enclaves in the one city, but that doesn't help. We just have two speech communities.


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So Spin, If you were Yeshua, or Yeshuwhoever, either son of Man, or Son of God, and you were from youth teaching your elders in the temple, reading Hebrew "Scripture", and sent on a mission by God "the Father", who is either your father, part of you, or a stranger... While you are crying out to the God of your templehood as you take your last breaths, as man/god or whatever... being sacrificed... You would irreverently cry out to him in Syriac, aramaic or some dialect to tell him that he has deserted you? or in the language your supposed Father gave to his people, would you make your last bold statement in Hebrew, the holy spiritual language given by YHWH your father to communicate?

Even if it is to quote Psalm 22, wouldn't it be specifically using the hebrew of the Psalm? Out of respect and to make a point? That is, if he was a willing sacrifice and did not think his god had let him down....

Doesn't a lack of at least biblical Hebrew by yeshu seem a bit weak? That is, if he was in fact calling to his God..Father..who if the god of the Old Testament was YHWH for the most part. At least the one requiring blood was YHWH and not EL. no?
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Old 09-28-2005, 07:16 PM   #166
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Why would someone form a Lexicon, Thayers (or strongs) and be so misguided in not checking first that the word is Hebrew, when it is known to be quoted in the Bible as being Hebrew? More likely they saw john's name and said "typical Greek" doesn't know a Hebrew word from an Aramaic, chaldean, or pidgeon poop. and then they labeled it according to what facts they had.
Where is their link to the Hebrew word?
Cass,
can you please explain this a little different?
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Old 09-29-2005, 04:01 AM   #167
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
So Spin, If you were Yeshua, or Yeshuwhoever, either son of Man, or Son of God, and you were from youth teaching your elders in the temple, reading Hebrew "Scripture", and sent on a mission by God "the Father", who is either your father, part of you, or a stranger... While you are crying out to the God of your templehood as you take your last breaths, as man/god or whatever... being sacrificed... You would irreverently cry out to him in Syriac, aramaic or some dialect to tell him that he has deserted you? or in the language your supposed Father gave to his people, would you make your last bold statement in Hebrew, the holy spiritual language given by YHWH your father to communicate?
You're asking me to watch the hand as I'm being drawn and intuit what it's going to have me do in the next frame. If I knew my Hebrew bible, I may think this is a good opportunity to use that line from Ps 22.

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Even if it is to quote Psalm 22, wouldn't it be specifically using the hebrew of the Psalm?
Yup.

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Out of respect and to make a point? That is, if he was a willing sacrifice and did not think his god had let him down....
Naaa, it's a great line. Too good not to get used. Respect? Why? Make a point? I'm being drawn. I make no points that I can remember. If someone puts Greek in my mouth then that's what comes out. Hebrew, then Hebrew comes out. Aramaic, why should I be adverse to that idea? You draw the speach bubble and fill it in, so I say it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Doesn't a lack of at least biblical Hebrew by yeshu seem a bit weak?
The dramatic effect is strong anyway, wouldn't you think?

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
That is, if he was in fact calling to his God..Father..who if the god of the Old Testament was YHWH for the most part. At least the one requiring blood was YHWH and not EL. no?
The two were equated I think by the ninth c. BCE.


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Old 09-29-2005, 05:35 AM   #168
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Originally Posted by Pilate
Cass,
can you please explain this a little different?
Well, Take Strong's for instance. I don't know which came first the dictionary or the concordance, but they were doing bible words, and I would have though as they found Bethesda to add to the list they would have seen it was referred to as being in the Hebrew and make a note.
But, I do not know how these things are done, so maybe not. At any rate, I would expect, if it was Hebrew in the least, the link to the Hebrew numbers.

On John, I think anyone who reads john, from his very first paragraphs,is taken by the difference in his whole style of writing, and thinking. I have read many times the suggestion that this style of writing and thought type is very Hellenistic. I'm not certain that it was john who meant "in the Hebrew tongue", or if he was just too Greek to even know any Hebrew and he literally meant Hebrew.. That is only quick opinion on my part. I have never really spent time researching the authorship beyond seeing that there are many varying opinions on who the writers were, of much of the NT as well as the Old. If I didn't know better, i'd suspect Paul was actually Josephus. So don't mind me, I see conspiracy everywhere.
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Old 09-29-2005, 06:20 AM   #169
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You're asking me to watch the hand as I'm being drawn and intuit what it's going to have me do in the next frame. If I knew my Hebrew bible, I may think this is a good opportunity to use that line from Ps 22.
Well, that is partly what has me doubting wether any of the writers were witnesses, if it happened at all.

Quote:
Naaa, it's a great line. Too good not to get used. Respect? Why? Make a point? I'm being drawn. I make no points that I can remember. If someone puts Greek in my mouth then that's what comes out. Hebrew, then Hebrew comes out. Aramaic, why should I be adverse to that idea? You draw the speach bubble and fill it in, so I say it.



The dramatic effect is strong anyway, wouldn't you think?
yes, but I didn't watch Mel gibson's, passion. I may have to get it for that line alone, now. Did you happen to see it and which line they used?

Taking for a moment, that jesus was real..
Even, if he would have been finalizing with a psalm, to choose the one where his god forsakes him has to be saying more then; Hey I'm jesus and I know the bible.
Quote:
The two were equated I think by the ninth c. BCE.


spin
Yes, but they weren't originally, which makes me wonder which one was jesus' god. again, if jesus was real. The Northern tribes were said to have worshipped El, as well as the tribesmen Murdered by Moses at the mountain of YaHWeH or Baal

Which also leads to his name having been yaHshua, when the prophecy said his name would be El is with us...ImmanuEL or however it was spelled in Hebrew or Aramaic...

If Jesus was the son of Yahweh he would have yelled Father or at least blurt out the true name of his God.

The fact that he would say my El, makes me wonder a bit more, about the fact that he said he came for none but the lost sheep of IsraEL. That may leave out all who worshipped Yahweh.

oh well... something for me to look into. How Yahwistic was jesus... if he existed
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Old 09-29-2005, 11:08 AM   #170
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Well, Take Strong's for instance. I don't know which came first the dictionary or the concordance, but they were doing bible words, and I would have though as they found Bethesda to add to the list they would have seen it was referred to as being in the Hebrew and make a note.
But, I do not know how these things are done, so maybe not. At any rate, I would expect, if it was Hebrew in the least, the link to the Hebrew numbers.

On John, I think anyone who reads john, from his very first paragraphs,is taken by the difference in his whole style of writing, and thinking. I have read many times the suggestion that this style of writing and thought type is very Hellenistic. I'm not certain that it was john who meant "in the Hebrew tongue", or if he was just too Greek to even know any Hebrew and he literally meant Hebrew.. That is only quick opinion on my part. I have never really spent time researching the authorship beyond seeing that there are many varying opinions on who the writers were, of much of the NT as well as the Old. If I didn't know better, i'd suspect Paul was actually Josephus. So don't mind me, I see conspiracy everywhere.
There are different variations of the Name Bethesda, but the one that John gave, Strong's says, is a Chaldee (Armaic word). Strong's mentions another variation of the name (i.e. other people may have called Bethesda with a Hebrew name "Baithan"). The Semitic languages of the time of Jesus are "frozen speciments." And several auhtoritative dictionaries were written.
Those languages have not changed to make the dictionaries obsolete, except to the extent that we have discovered a few new meanings, or discovered a few new words, etc. Dismissing the authority of established dictionaries (people spent lifetimes to build them) is something that is not lightly to be taken, especially in this environment.
A word of caution about this environment (this forum):
This is not a scholarly environment, where you do not know who is handing you information, and where people are allowed to boo someone's information. Whosever information the crowd of this forum accepts becomes the official creed here.(This is definitely not a process of discovery.) This is not the place to come up with new innovations in the field etymology. There is a place for this work: the universities. That is what they are for.
All you can expect here is to learn the basics and get a few leads, referrences to authoritative sources, or ancient citations, which you can use to enhance your knowledge. My advise, when it comes to advanced research in the field of languages, do not adopt the judgment of anyone here, not even mine.

As for the Gospel of John: there are many scholars who link it with the Gnostics of Egypt (to our knowledge: it was, very likely, first used by them, and perhaps was edited by them).I am giving you what many scholars have found (and I have done some homework):
The first 19 verses of John (the Prologue) and the last chapter (the Epilogue) are clear additions. All gospels have undergone editing and augmenting, and John is not an exception. The language and grammr of John is refined and the style distinctly allegorical and rhetorical. Roughly speaking (that's all I can do here) it sounds like a product of a sophist, with a few concepts and words of Gnosticim. The writer and the audience of this gospel, are non Palestinian. (I did not make up these things from the top of my head. I consulted multiple sources.)
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