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Old 05-10-2004, 03:54 PM   #1
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Default Origin of "Free Will" & "Sin"

Okay, in certain religious/philosophical discussions, the topic of free will always emerges (much to my dislike).

I was under the impression the concept of free will emerged somewhere at the end of the Dark Ages to combat the masses starting to re-educate themselves and question the concept of Omnipotent Deity/Sin. I don't remember where I gleaned this information from, so don't ask me for sources.

But I'm starting to wonder, is it older, as a prominent subject of religious theory? Someone once in passing mentioned Babylonia, and that just sounded too old for me. Though if anyone has any information on this, it'd be much appreciated (and I'll love you forever and ever).

Also, someone I was discussing something with once mentioned the Jews had no concept of "Sin". Would anyone care to elaborate on this for me? I understand much of the origin of the Abrahamic faiths' most screwed-up-concepts, but "Sin" is one I'm lacking a bit on. Again, any info will bring much love and adoration from me.
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Old 05-11-2004, 11:03 AM   #2
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The Determinist would respond that if Freewill is a reality it must be older than its illusion . . . but not by much since the illusion is needed before humans will begin to search for its reality.

According to Gen. to be "like God" and know the difference between good and evil is what leads us away from reality (called Eden), and if this is true it would follow that education is, or will become, our own enemy towards freedom.

Jews can't have a concept of sin because it is in seeking to be justified that we are shown to be sinners and since Jews are not justified AS Jew the concept sin cannot be theirs (Gal.2:17). The laws were given to Moses towards the conviction of sin and when this happens the convicted Jew will no longer be a Jew (according to this theory).
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Old 05-11-2004, 04:35 PM   #3
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I get your points, but I was asking more about the actual historical emergence of the conept. Y'know, paradigm shifts and all that.
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