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Old 03-19-2009, 11:28 AM   #1
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Default What EXACTLY is Proto/Old Hebrew?

My understanding is that some 9th cent tablets or such were found with the begginings of a writing system that was being built off of the Phoenecian script. How EXACTLY did this writing system come to be attributed to Hebrews???
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Old 03-19-2009, 11:44 AM   #2
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Do you mean this? Aramaic/Proto-Hebrew alphabet

Paleo-Hebrew

"Proto-Hebrew" just means that the writing system preceded the current Hebrew alphabet. It is generally agreed that it was adapted from an earlier Proto-Canaanite or Phoenician alphabet.

I'm not sure I understand your question, or your apparent outrage?
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Old 03-19-2009, 11:56 AM   #3
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Do you mean this? Aramaic/Proto-Hebrew alphabet

Paleo-Hebrew

"Proto-Hebrew" just means that the writing system preceded the current Hebrew alphabet. It is generally agreed that it was adapted from an earlier Proto-Canaanite or Phoenician alphabet.

I'm not sure I understand your question, or your apparent outrage?
Outrage?? Huh? Let me rephrase my question. I know how it is defined, I am unclear on how that conclusion was reached. Again, to my understanding, a number of tablets were found around the 9th cent that contained the the makings of a writing system that was based on the phoenecian script. My question is how EXACTLY was this writing system associated to Hebrews?
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Old 03-19-2009, 12:15 PM   #4
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...
Outrage?? Huh?
CAPITAL LETTERS and multiple ???'s generally indicate some degree of excitment or outrage - maybe you need to use an emoticon? Like :huh: or

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Let me rephrase my question. I know how it is defined, I am unclear on how that conclusion was reached. Again, to my understanding, a number of tablets were found around the 9th cent that contained the the makings of a writing system that was based on the phoenecian script. My question is how EXACTLY was this writing system associated to Hebrews?
That's a technical question for linguists and paleographers and archeologists. I think that it involves a methodology much like paleontology - finding numerous small clues from the same and different time periods, building up a skeleton, and observing changes over time.

If you wait, spin will probably be able to give you a better answer.
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Old 03-19-2009, 01:10 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ohene View Post
...
Outrage?? Huh?
CAPITAL LETTERS and multiple ???'s generally indicate some degree of excitment or outrage - maybe you need to use an emoticon? Like :huh: or

Quote:
Let me rephrase my question. I know how it is defined, I am unclear on how that conclusion was reached. Again, to my understanding, a number of tablets were found around the 9th cent that contained the the makings of a writing system that was based on the phoenecian script. My question is how EXACTLY was this writing system associated to Hebrews?
That's a technical question for linguists and paleographers and archeologists. I think that it involves a methodology much like paleontology - finding numerous small clues from the same and different time periods, building up a skeleton, and observing changes over time.

If you wait, spin will probably be able to give you a better answer.
I certainly have no control over your perception of my use of capital letters but my intent was to stress that I was interested in a detailed response. :huh: Hows that?

You are correct in your response concerning the technicality of the question which I why it has been difficult for me to get a detailed, informed answer on how this naming convention was reached. Hopefully Spin will swing by. Thanks.
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Old 03-19-2009, 05:15 PM   #6
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Paleo Hebrew is just the older script used to write the Hebrew language before the "box" script was adopted. Just like the "box" script was borrowed from the Aramaic language, the older "Paleo" script was borrowed from the Phoenicians.

How do we know the ancient Hebrews wrote that way? Because we have ancient inscriptions that use Hebrew grammar which were written that way.

Is this thread going to turn into an Emily Latella skit from Saturday Night Live? "What's all this fuss about Youth-in-Asia?" followed by a loooong rambling dissertation that makes no sense. Jane says "Emily, that's 'euthanasia'." "Oh ... never mind ..." she admits, then finds a way to draw a pointless moral out of all the rambling.

DCH

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You are correct in your [Toto's] response concerning the technicality of the question[,] which I[s] why it has been difficult for me to get a detailed, informed answer on how this naming convention was reached. ... Thanks.
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Old 03-19-2009, 06:00 PM   #7
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I've been looking at Paleo Hebrew a little but only in the last few days, and not in any depth, so forgive any errors here.

This topic seems to be of immense importance.

I've seem some attributions to the Samaritans, whether this comes from Samaria or the Hebrew Shomer (watch) is a question in itself.

The little I've read said it may have been in use in the 10th century BCE and modern Hebrew letters replaced them soon after the exile. Yet I also saw that some coins etc. from Bar Kochba times (135 CE) also use it.

I'm not sure how the Talmud handles this issue, or even if they deal with it. Seems to me, if something is passed down from Moses in an unbroken change, something like a complete change in letters would be worth mentioning.

They say that Rabbi Akiba could understand the little curly ques they put on some letters in the Torah, but how could this be if the letters were different? The Bar Kochba "evidence" makes me more confused, because R. Akiba thought Bar Kochba was the messiah.

Probably this stuff is all well known, kind of interesting for me though, it's not everyday a new area of study opens up.
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Old 03-19-2009, 06:36 PM   #8
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Bar Kokhba's letters from Nahal Hever were written in square script. I think post-Babylonian exile Phoenician script was only used for short bits of writing such as a name on a coin. I recall seeing texts in square script with YHWH in Phoenician script.

There is mention in the Talmud that post exile the Samaritans wrote their language in 'Hebrew' script while the Jews wrote Hebrew in Babylonian script.
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Old 03-19-2009, 06:43 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Paleo Hebrew is just the older script used to write the Hebrew language before the "box" script was adopted. Just like the "box" script was borrowed from the Aramaic language, the older "Paleo" script was borrowed from the Phoenicians.

How do we know the ancient Hebrews wrote that way? Because we have ancient inscriptions that use Hebrew grammar which were written that way.

Is this thread going to turn into an Emily Latella skit from Saturday Night Live? "What's all this fuss about Youth-in-Asia?" followed by a loooong rambling dissertation that makes no sense. Jane says "Emily, that's 'euthanasia'." "Oh ... never mind ..." she admits, then finds a way to draw a pointless moral out of all the rambling.

DCH

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Originally Posted by Ohene View Post
You are correct in your [Toto's] response concerning the technicality of the question[,] which I[s] why it has been difficult for me to get a detailed, informed answer on how this naming convention was reached. ... Thanks.
Hmmm, I missed that set, will have to check it out. In any case, lets hope it doesn't come to that so I'll keep it simple. You said "Because we have ancient inscriptions that use Hebrew grammar which were written that way."

To that I ask, what ancient inscriptions and on what basis where these inscriptions determined to be the works of Hebrews? Benchmark?
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Old 03-19-2009, 06:50 PM   #10
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Originally Posted by semiopen View Post
I've been looking at Paleo Hebrew a little but only in the last few days, and not in any depth, so forgive any errors here.

This topic seems to be of immense importance.

I've seem some attributions to the Samaritans, whether this comes from Samaria or the Hebrew Shomer (watch) is a question in itself.

The little I've read said it may have been in use in the 10th century BCE and modern Hebrew letters replaced them soon after the exile. Yet I also saw that some coins etc. from Bar Kochba times (135 CE) also use it.

I'm not sure how the Talmud handles this issue, or even if they deal with it. Seems to me, if something is passed down from Moses in an unbroken change, something like a complete change in letters would be worth mentioning.

They say that Rabbi Akiba could understand the little curly ques they put on some letters in the Torah, but how could this be if the letters were different? The Bar Kochba "evidence" makes me more confused, because R. Akiba thought Bar Kochba was the messiah.

Probably this stuff is all well known, kind of interesting for me though, it's not everyday a new area of study opens up.
My focus is a determination based on a STAND ALONE analysis. Forgive me but Im not particular concerned with the Talmud or what writers near the turn of the century had to say. Oral traditions (passed down from Moses) also don't cut it.

Can you elaborate on the 135 CE coins that used it?
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