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Old 12-02-2009, 11:19 AM   #1
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Default Why is Christmas celebrated on Dec 25

BAR has an interesting article online that seems to have everything known about setting Christmas on Dec 25: How December 25 Became Christmas by Andrew McGowan.

It is popularly believed (and accepted by many Christians) that the Dec 25 date was chosen to coopt pagan celebrations of the solstice, or the birthdate of Sol Invictus, and it is indisputable that many elements of the Christmas celebration are pagan (the Yule log, Christmas trees, etc.) The author of this article notes, however, that the first reference to December 25 comes from the Donatists, who preserved traditions from the early fourth century, at a time when the Christian Church was more inclined to distinguish itself from the surrounding pagan culture that to assimilate their practices.

He posits that Dec 25, or the solstice, was chosen for mystical reasons: that Jesus' death was set at Passover, and theologically he must have been conceived on the same date in the calendar that he died. (There are similar ideas in the Talmud.) This works out to a birth date 9 months later, or Dec 25.

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Connecting Jesus' conception and death in this way will certainly seem odd to modern readers, but it reflects ancient and medieval understandings of the whole of salvation being bound up together. One of the most poignant expressions of this belief is found in Christian art. In numerous paintings of the angel's Annunciation to Mary -- the moment of Jesus' conception -- the baby Jesus is shown gliding down from heaven on or with a small cross (see photo of detail from Master Bertram’s Annunciation scene); a visual reminder that the conception brings the promise of salvation through Jesus’ death.
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:32 AM   #2
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Seems like a lot of mental gymnastics to "make" it work out ("must have been conceived on the same date..." Um, why?) for something that has a perfectly reasonable explanation already.
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:41 AM   #3
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Because the Roman festivals of Io Saturnalia and Celtic festivals of the solstice fell around that time and they wanted to supplant them.

Same reason Easter falls on the first Friday and Sunday after the equinoxes first full moon.

It's propaganda.

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Easter is a moveable feast, meaning it is not fixed in relation to the civil calendar. The First Council of Nicaea (325) established the date of Easter as the first Sunday after the full moon (the Paschal Full Moon) following the vernal equinox.[3] Ecclesiastically, the equinox is reckoned to be on March 21. The date of Easter therefore varies between March 22 and April 25. Eastern Christianity bases its calculations on the Julian Calendar whose March 21 corresponds, during the twenty-first century, to April 3 in the Gregorian Calendar, in which calendar their celebration of Easter therefore varies between April 4 and May 8.
It just so happens that Celtic festivals fall on the same day.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Easter

I don't buy that that is a coincidence myself...

The name Easter is based on a middle Eastern God, and is pagan so it's obvious.

Eostur-monath?

Easter Month, based on a Germanic festival.
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:42 AM   #4
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[to the tune of Deck the Halls]

They stole Christmas from the Pagans

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy

Anyone who denies is fakin

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:46 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lintrap View Post
[to the tune of Deck the Halls]

They stole Christmas from the Pagans

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy

Anyone who denies is fakin

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy
Amen.
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:52 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by Failte View Post
Seems like a lot of mental gymnastics to "make" it work out ("must have been conceived on the same date..." Um, why?) for something that has a perfectly reasonable explanation already.
The theory with the most evidence wins, and there seems to be no evidence to connect Christmas with Sol Invictus, except maybe the shared date? Since Christians at the time made the pagan religions the enemy and tried to make Christianity distinct, it is unlikely that they borrowed the pagan holiday. If there was evidence for the theory, then it would overrule the improbability. The author has this line of evidence for his theory:
Quote:
This idea appears in an anonymous Christian treatise titled On Solstices and Equinoxes, which appears to come from fourth-century North Africa. The treatise states: “Therefore our Lord was conceived on the eighth of the kalends of April in the month of March [March 25], which is the day of the passion of the Lord and of his conception. For on that day he was conceived on the same he suffered.”11 Based on this, the treatise dates Jesus’ birth to the winter solstice.
The footnote reads:
Quote:
11. De solstitia et aequinoctia conceptionis et nativitatis domini nostri iesu christi et iohannis baptistae.
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Old 12-02-2009, 11:53 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lintrap View Post
[to the tune of Deck the Halls]

They stole Christmas from the Pagans

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy

Anyone who denies is fakin

Fal-la-la-la-la-la-fa-fallacy
Sing it brother!

Alleluia!
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Old 12-02-2009, 12:08 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Failte View Post
Seems like a lot of mental gymnastics to "make" it work out ("must have been conceived on the same date..." Um, why?) for something that has a perfectly reasonable explanation already.
The theory with the most evidence wins, and there seems to be no evidence to connect Christmas with Sol Invictus, except maybe the shared date? Since Christians at the time made the pagan religions the enemy and tried to make Christianity distinct, it is unlikely that they borrowed the pagan holiday. If there was evidence for the theory, then it would overrule the improbability. The author has this line of evidence for his theory:
The footnote reads:
Quote:
11. De solstitia et aequinoctia conceptionis et nativitatis domini nostri iesu christi et iohannis baptistae.
Well that's a thread killer.

Good post.
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Old 12-02-2009, 12:09 PM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Failte View Post
Seems like a lot of mental gymnastics to "make" it work out ("must have been conceived on the same date..." Um, why?)
Remember that this is the ancient world, not the modern one. Such thinking was to become characteristic of the middle ages.
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Old 12-02-2009, 12:11 PM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
He posits that Dec 25, or the solstice, was chosen for mystical reasons: that Jesus' death was set at Passover, and theologically he must have been conceived on the same date in the calendar that he died.
I acknowledge being more than a little dense.

I am having trouble understanding these ideas.....

First problem: Passover: how do we know when that occurred? Do the Donatists provide a specific date, one which is correlated back three hundred years to the time of Jesus' supposed execution?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
This works out to a birth date 9 months later, or Dec 25.
Second problem: Even assuming that the Donatists correctly identified the precise date in April when the execution took place, why would they suppose, (i.e. what is the "theological" rationale?) that n years plus nine months earlier, obviously not "later", the "holy spirit" impregnated Mary? If the Holy spirit impregnated her, why would Mary be required to wait nine months to deliver the god/man? Nine hours, or nine weeks, or nine seconds would suffice just as easily...

Final problem: what is very mysterious to me, is that our solar calendar employs 12 months, about 30 days each, but the Jews, and thus the early Christians, used a lunar calendar, with 13 months, each 28 days duration....So, how does the number 25 figure in their calculations???
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