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Old 01-25-2006, 07:05 PM   #1
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Default Paul and Women in I Corinthians

According to an acquaintance of mine, he claims this:

Quote:
Paul's writing in I Corinthians was directed to a specific church, where the women were lording power over the men. It was meant to be a punishment for previous behavior, not a guideline for everyone. Unfortunately, some people take it as a generalization... which isn't taking it literally, despite what they say.
He claims that there are certain word cues that indicate this. How true is this? If Paul was addressing this to a specific church, just which church is this?

As I am ignorant on the matter, I bring this to the IIDB and hope to learn from the people here. :notworthy:
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Old 01-25-2006, 09:44 PM   #2
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I think you will obtain better responses if you obtain the specific "word cues" upon which the claim is based.
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Old 01-25-2006, 09:46 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I think you will obtain better responses if you obtain the specific "word cues" upon which the claim is based.
I've asked. He never gave me a straight answer, which makes me suspect that he doesn't really know what he's talking about. Still, I wonder if somebody does?
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Old 01-25-2006, 10:01 PM   #4
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I don't see where this website mentions any specific "word cues" but it appears to be arguing the same conclusion:

http://www.womenpriests.org/scriptur/1cor11.asp

My personal favorite interpretation (and it always will be) is in a post by neilgodfrey:

it's about testicles (seriously!) not head covering

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