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01-30-2008, 11:25 AM | #901 |
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Message: Micah 5:2 says "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." If the Jews believed that the messiah would become ruler of Israel in this life, which I believe that they did, God deceived them.
Although Christians blame the Jews for not knowing who Jesus was, it was God's fault. If Micah had said that the messiah would become ruler of a heavenly kingdom, and that he would heal people, and that he would be crucified and rise from the dead, and that Pontius Pilate would become governor of Palestine, there are not any doubts whatsoever that a lot more Jews would have accepted Jesus. A God who wanted to use prophecy for anything would make lots of indisputable predictions that would discourage dissent instead of needlessly inviting dissent. No reasonable motives for God's refusal to make indisputable predictions, thereby needlessly encouraging dissent instead of discouraging dissent = no God of the Bible. |
01-30-2008, 12:17 PM | #902 |
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Message to arnoldo: Why did God allow Trajan to kill 500,000 Jews in Palestine in the early part of the 2nd century?
If you decided that you wanted to protect John Smith from being attacked by his enemies because John Smith was your friend, would you injure or kill him? Of course you wouldn't, which invites the question "If God wanted to protect Jews from their enemies, why did he sometimes injure or kill them with storms and harmful microorganisms? With parasites alone, God has killed more people than all of the wars in history, and he has done so indiscriminately without any regard for a person's worldview. It is utter nonsense for anyone to assume that God would protect Jews from being injured or killed by humans, but not from being injured or killed by anything else. |
01-30-2008, 01:44 PM | #903 |
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Message to arnoldo: Why did God allow Trajan to kill 500,000 Jews in Palestine in the early part of the 2nd century?
If you decided that you wanted to protect John Smith from being attacked by his enemies because John Smith was your friend, would you injure or kill him? Of course you wouldn't, which invites the question "If God wanted to protect Jews from their enemies, why did he sometimes injure or kill them with storms and harmful microorganisms? With parasites alone, God has killed more people than all of the wars in history, and he has done so indiscriminately without any regard for a person's worldview. It is utter nonsense for anyone to assume that God would protect Jews from being injured or killed by humans, but not from being injured or killed by anything else. |
01-30-2008, 01:45 PM | #904 |
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Message: Micah 5:2 says "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." If the Jews believed that the messiah would become ruler of Israel in this life, which I believe that they did, God deceived them.
Although Christians blame the Jews for not knowing who Jesus was, it was God's fault. If Micah had said that the messiah would become ruler of a heavenly kingdom, and that he would heal people, and that he would be crucified and rise from the dead, and that Pontius Pilate would become governor of Palestine, there are not any doubts whatsoever that a lot more Jews would have accepted Jesus. A God who wanted to use prophecy for anything would make lots of indisputable predictions that would discourage dissent instead of needlessly inviting dissent. No reasonable motives for God's refusal to make indisputable predictions, thereby needlessly encouraging dissent instead of discouraging dissent = no God of the Bible. |
01-30-2008, 01:46 PM | #905 | |
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Without American aid, would the British have been defeated? Yes. Without a majority vote by the U.N., would the Jews have tried to occupy parts of Palestine at that time? No. If the Bible did not exist, would the vote by the U.N. have been the same? No. The proof is that out of the 33 governments that voted in favor of the partition, 32 are Christian, and 1, the Russian government, was joyfully receiving lots of aid from the U.S. Out of the 13 governments that voted against the partition, 12 are not-Chrisitian, and 1, the Greek government, is nominally Christian. Now are you going to embarrass yourself and tell us that Christianity, Judaism, and military power did not have anything to do with the Partition of Palestine, and that if the Axis Powers had won the Second World War, the Palestine would have been partitioned. Is it true that even if a prophecy is false, if people believe that it is true, and have enough military power, they can make it come true? Yes. Could God have made indisputable prophecies that would have left no doubt about the history of the Jewish people? Yes. Could God easily prove to everyone's satisfaction that he can predict the future if he wanted to? 2 Samuel 7:10 says that the Jews will have a homeland where no one will bother them. That is not going to happen. |
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01-30-2008, 02:51 PM | #906 |
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01-30-2008, 02:53 PM | #907 | |
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01-30-2008, 02:57 PM | #908 |
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There have always been wars. Why is predicting "the future will look like the past" somehow mysterious or divine?
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01-30-2008, 02:57 PM | #909 | ||
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01-30-2008, 03:05 PM | #910 | |||
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