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Old 08-19-2009, 08:35 AM   #1
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Question How was Mary chosen?

What is the criteria to be regarded as worthy of being the mother of God?

In Bible, the angel simply comes to Mary but what was so special about her that she was selected over other women?

RC speaks of Immaculate Conception, but that just pushes the problem further. Why were Mary's parents considered to be worthy of this honour of bearing a child without original sin?

The Bible does not explain anything.
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Old 08-19-2009, 08:46 AM   #2
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Accident?
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Old 08-19-2009, 08:50 AM   #3
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Read the Infancy Evangelion of James. I mean, it's not canonical and thus not historical... but there's hardly anything "historical" in the canonical gospels.
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Old 08-19-2009, 08:58 AM   #4
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Wouldn't she have to be sinless too? Isn't sin supposedly passed through the blood?
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Old 08-19-2009, 09:27 AM   #5
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat
Wouldn't she have to be sinless too? Isn't sin supposedly passed through the blood?
Passed through the male, the late Arthur Custance (Doorway Papers) writes about this nicely.

Good question, and the basics of some major doctrinal misunderstandings in both RCC and some 'Protestant' teachings.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-19-2009, 09:50 AM   #6
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Quote:
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat
Wouldn't she have to be sinless too? Isn't sin supposedly passed through the blood?
Passed through the male, the late Arthur Custance (Doorway Papers) writes about this nicely.

Good question, and the basics of some major doctrinal misunderstandings in both RCC and some 'Protestant' teachings.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
So females are sinless?
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Old 08-19-2009, 09:56 AM   #7
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat
So females are sinless?
No, their seed is not the vessel for the transmission of the yetzer hara.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-19-2009, 10:00 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery View Post
Hi Folks,

Passed through the male, the late Arthur Custance (Doorway Papers) writes about this nicely.

Good question, and the basics of some major doctrinal misunderstandings in both RCC and some 'Protestant' teachings.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
So females are sinless?
The better explanation is that 1st century science didn't know that women actually had eggs. They just thought that the woman's womb was an incubator for the man's sperm. It was the sperm itself that grew into a human being, not male sperm fertilizing female eggs. They had no idea why women had their periods.

Understanding this, this is what allowed the gospel writer(s) to declare immaculate conception. It wasn't that the "holy spirit" combined with Mary's eggs. The "holy spirit" simply grew inside of Mary's womb - thus Jesus didn't share any blood with Mary.

When it was discovered that women had eggs, then you start getting all of these modern questions about sin and blood and all that nonsense. The creators of the virgin birth story didn't need to explain that because they didn't think that Jesus and Mary shared any DNA.
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Old 08-19-2009, 10:04 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery View Post
Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat
So females are sinless?
No, their seed is not the vessel for the transmission of the yetzer hara.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
Do you have a source for that view Steven?

It sounds Talmudic.

Thanks
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Old 08-19-2009, 10:07 AM   #10
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by xaxxat
So females are sinless?
No, their seed is not the vessel for the transmission of the yetzer hara.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
What do you mean by "seed"?
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