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Old 10-30-2007, 11:57 AM   #11
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[
I'd be very interested in and appreciative in seeing any supports for this assertion.

Additionally, I'd be interested in stats and examples that support Greek origins as it relates the the parallels in Mark as well as the Markan priority as it relates to Matthew.

Thanks.
This may be relevant Tatian's Diatessaron: Its Creation, Dissemination, Significance, and History ... By William Lawrence Peterson on Google Books

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Old 10-31-2007, 09:04 AM   #12
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Andrew, that's incredible and many thanks. I believe this addresses the plausible Latin origins of the Shem Tov.
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Old 10-31-2007, 12:17 PM   #13
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Actually the book is by the late William Lawrence Petersen

Andrew Criddle
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Old 10-31-2007, 01:50 PM   #14
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:redface: sorry about that.
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Old 10-31-2007, 07:49 PM   #15
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Some have speculated that the Matthew which Tatian speaks of was a sayings collection because Tatian uses the term logion, while in the adjoining sentence he characterizes Mark as writing down both sayings and events. If this is the case, then it possible that there was an ur-Matthew consisting of Aramaic sayings collection, along the same lines as Q and GThomas. There is no evidence for this other than speculation, but it does iron out the problem of Aramaicisms in Matthew.
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Old 10-31-2007, 08:09 PM   #16
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Some have speculated that the Matthew which Tatian speaks of was a sayings collection because Tatian uses the term logion, while in the adjoining sentence he characterizes Mark as writing down both sayings and events. If this is the case, then it possible that there was an ur-Matthew consisting of Aramaic sayings collection, along the same lines as Q and GThomas. There is no evidence for this other than speculation, but it does iron out the problem of Aramaicisms in Matthew.
However, what about the following notion?

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An investigation of the Semitic idioms observed in the Gospel does not permit us to conclude as to whether the original was in Hebrew or Aramaic, as the two languages are so closely related. Besides, it must be home in mind that the greater part of these Semitisms simply reproduce colloquial Greek and are not of Hebrew or Aramaic origin.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/10057a.htm
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Old 10-31-2007, 08:24 PM   #17
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However, what about the following notion?

Quote:
An investigation of the Semitic idioms observed in the Gospel does not permit us to conclude as to whether the original was in Hebrew or Aramaic, as the two languages are so closely related. Besides, it must be home in mind that the greater part of these Semitisms simply reproduce colloquial Greek and are not of Hebrew or Aramaic origin.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/10057a.htm
Unfortunately, the original language of the Gospel, as far as manuscript evidence is concerned, is Greek. Anything about the underlying Aramaic (probably not Hebrew) is speculation.
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