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Old 07-06-2012, 12:00 AM   #1
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Question Why Were the Gospels Written?

Hello everyone. This is my first post on these forums for some time, but I do follow the debates here. This needn't be about the HJ vs the MJ (which seems to consume most of the threads here) but it might be relevant.

Basically, I'm interested in the motivations of the gospel authors. What were they trying to achieve in writing these texts and who were they writing for? The most common answer is that they were writing with an evangelical purpose: that is, to a wide audience with the intent of convincing them of the "good news" of Jesus Christ. I, however, don't think this is the most likely explanation for the authors' motivation, as I explain on my blog here. The most relevant points I would raise against the "gospels as evangelism" theory, are:

Quote:
1) The evidence seems pretty clear (based on almost total lack of surviving manuscripts) that the gospels were not in wide-circulation until at least the 3rd century. That is, even if the gospels were written as evangelising tools (introducing the good news about Jesus to as wide a population as possible) they were certainly not utilised that way.

2) As a corollary to the first point, the gospels went almost completely uncited by early Christian authors until the late 2nd century. Even then, they appear to have been used primarily in a sectarian context as evidence for the (proto-)Orthodox position against more "heretical" forms of Christianity rather than as a proselytising tool for convincing those completely outside the faith.

3) Low literacy rates in the ancient world (perhaps as low as 2%) rendered the book as a tool for the wide dissemination of beliefs rather ineffective. If one wanted to understand the content of the gospels one would either need to be either wealthy and well-placed in society (and it does seem to be true that early Christianity was relatively successful within this demographic) or else be part of a community where it would be possible to hear the texts read aloud (i.e. already a member of a church).

4) The content of the gospels don't seem to have been constructed with a proselytising goal in mind. That is, much of their content must strike one as unusual or counter-productive if their primary intention was to convince outsiders of the veracity of Christian claims.
(I expand on the final point more fully in my blog post.)

Rather than attributing this evangelical purpose to the gospels, I would instead argue that they were initially composed both for and within a relatively small church or community, and served a rather more mundane lectionary or liturgical purpose. Their use as a tool of evangelism came later.

But for now, I'd be interested to hear what the rest of you would have to say about this topic.

(I apologise in advance if this topic has already been done to death. I did a search and couldn't find any relevant results.)
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Old 07-06-2012, 12:44 AM   #2
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I clearly represent a minority opinion but I think that since the gospel is centrally fixated on the destruction of Judaism in 70 CE, the identity of the text is likely related to this. Judaism must have been seen as being on its last legs. God comes down to earth to confirm that. The temple had to be destroyed, the Jewish religion had to be brought to an end - in order to usher in the new age of the Christian religion.

I think the material that survives down to us has a Greek speaking audience in mind. One can posit the existence of a Semitic text that was aimed at Jewish proselytes in Syria and the Near East. I think what becomes rabbinic Judaism was aware of this message and is in a sense a conservative reaction against this original religion (probably associated with Elisha b Abuya and Mayesha/Meir)

There have always been Jewish groups that preach the doctrine of freedom from the Law. The Jewish religion is after all central focused on the virtues of slavery. For instance modern liberal Judaism is totally indebted to Frankism even if that debt isn't recognized. It is funny to see all these Jewish people who don't obey the laws of the Jewish religion in their daily lives and still think they are 'Jewish' - even religious Jews. They engage in all of this inherently contradictory behavior without recognizes who it was who allowed them to get away with this! The same thing happened in early Christianity. People no longer recognize the historical forces behind their own existence. In short we are stupid animals though out the ages. No reason to think we will ever change
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Old 07-06-2012, 04:33 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
I clearly represent a minority opinion but I think that since the gospel is centrally fixated on the destruction of Judaism in 70 CE, the identity of the text is likely related to this. Judaism must have been seen as being on its last legs. God comes down to earth to confirm that. The temple had to be destroyed, the Jewish religion had to be brought to an end - in order to usher in the new age of the Christian religion.
What would you say to an Xian who believes references to 70AD in the gospels are prophecy rather than reportage?
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Old 07-06-2012, 05:17 AM   #4
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Why were the Gospels written?

Because audio and video recording had not been invented yet, illustrative tapestries can not be easily transported and interpretive dance was considered too gay even for the Greeks.
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Old 07-06-2012, 05:38 AM   #5
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Originally Posted by JP2 View Post
Hello everyone. This is my first post on these forums for some time, but I do follow the debates here. This needn't be about the HJ vs the MJ (which seems to consume most of the threads here) but it might be relevant.

Basically, I'm interested in the motivations of the gospel authors. What were they trying to achieve in writing these texts and who were they writing for? The most common answer is that they were writing with an evangelical purpose: that is, to a wide audience with the intent of convincing them of the "good news" of Jesus Christ. I, however, don't think this is the most likely explanation for the authors' motivation, as I explain on my blog here. The most relevant points I would raise against the "gospels as evangelism" theory, are:

Quote:
1) The evidence seems pretty clear (based on almost total lack of surviving manuscripts) that the gospels were not in wide-circulation until at least the 3rd century. That is, even if the gospels were written as evangelising tools (introducing the good news about Jesus to as wide a population as possible) they were certainly not utilised that way.

2) As a corollary to the first point, the gospels went almost completely uncited by early Christian authors until the late 2nd century. Even then, they appear to have been used primarily in a sectarian context as evidence for the (proto-)Orthodox position against more "heretical" forms of Christianity rather than as a proselytising tool for convincing those completely outside the faith.

3) Low literacy rates in the ancient world (perhaps as low as 2%) rendered the book as a tool for the wide dissemination of beliefs rather ineffective. If one wanted to understand the content of the gospels one would either need to be either wealthy and well-placed in society (and it does seem to be true that early Christianity was relatively successful within this demographic) or else be part of a community where it would be possible to hear the texts read aloud (i.e. already a member of a church).

4) The content of the gospels don't seem to have been constructed with a proselytising goal in mind. That is, much of their content must strike one as unusual or counter-productive if their primary intention was to convince outsiders of the veracity of Christian claims.
(I expand on the final point more fully in my blog post.)

Rather than attributing this evangelical purpose to the gospels, I would instead argue that they were initially composed both for and within a relatively small church or community, and served a rather more mundane lectionary or liturgical purpose. Their use as a tool of evangelism came later.

But for now, I'd be interested to hear what the rest of you would have to say about this topic.
What you have to say sounds not unfamiliar; like recording of the complaint of one who unplugs his telephone and wonders why he gets no calls. To regard the effects of violent antichristianity as the work of Christianity is guaranteed to produce such a result.

Quote:
(I apologise in advance if this topic has already been done to death. I did a search and couldn't find any relevant results.)
One can find on the internet much evidence of treatment of Christianity of any era as totally invisible; yet recognition of those with a record of activities that were used, when the internet was young, as 'reason' for rejecting Christianity.

There seems to have been a total U-turn, in a couple of decades. Those responsible for Crusades, censorship, Inquisitions, massacres and massive, universal oppression are now the sole inheritors of the gentle carpenter. That's conversion. That's the complete victory of those gospel authors.
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Old 07-06-2012, 05:41 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by Duke Leto View Post
Why were the Gospels written?
The literate deaf deserved a choice.
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Old 07-06-2012, 06:15 AM   #7
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It would take a strong case to overturn the prima facie intentions of the gospels (religious evangelism). Arguments from silence count for very little, as almost all written texts in the ancient world disintegrated before reaching modern times. If you focus your argument on the contents of the gospels, then perhaps you should focus heavily on Luke 1:4, where the author makes his own intention explicit: "...so that you may know the truth concerning the things about which you have been instructed." Matthew and Luke each contain rambling genealogies of Jesus, to prove that he was descended from David. The gospels are filled primarily with religious sermons of Jesus. They seem to have little entertainment value.
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Old 07-06-2012, 07:15 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
It would take a strong case to overturn the prima facie intentions of the gospels (religious evangelism). Arguments from silence count for very little, as almost all written texts in the ancient world disintegrated before reaching modern times. If you focus your argument on the contents of the gospels, then perhaps you should focus heavily on Luke 1:4, where the author makes his own intention explicit: "...so that you may know the truth concerning the things about which you have been instructed." Matthew and Luke each contain rambling genealogies of Jesus, to prove that he was descended from David. The gospels are filled primarily with religious sermons of Jesus. They seem to have little entertainment value.
Again, you promote propaganda and do not reflect what is actually written.

In the earliest Jesus stories as found in the short-ending gMark, the long ending gMark and gMatthew, the Jesus character DELIBERATELY spoke in Parables so that the OUTSIDERS could NOT understand him.

ONLY the INSIDERS, the Chosen Few, understood Jesus in the early Synoptic stories.

Matthew 13
Quote:
10And the disciples came , and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?

11 He answered and said unto them.......Therefore speak I to them in parables.........lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted , and I should heal them.

All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them...
The earliest Jesus story was NOT about Salvation by Crucifixion. The earliest story was written AFTER the Fall of the Temple to EXPLAIN the destruction of the Temple and the desolation of Jerusalem by claiming that the Jews REJECTED the Son of God and caused him to be crucified.

See the short-ending gMark.

It was the BELIEF of the story in gMark that caused THE START of the Jesus cult of Christians.
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Old 07-06-2012, 07:40 AM   #9
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I find the Gospels to be midrasim crafted so as to serve as mnemonic devices concealing the mapatakah ('keys') for unlocking the ha'natzaroth (the 'hidden things'/esoteric knowledge) of the Tanaka.
The two being so intricately interrelated that to ma'bien ('understand/comprehend/build upon') requires the recognition of, and the dedicated employment of specific ancient key shibboleth words and idioms, which are not exchangeable for any other or any foreign terms.
These ancient Hebrew 'shibboleths' are inherently ultra-exclusive, discriminating and identifying between those who might claim to be Israel's spiritual patriots, and between those who may try to 'pass' but whom by their indifferent and corrupted speech are revealed as being degenerate renegades, traitors, and spies.

When a Gileadite sentinel requires a 'shibboleth', one might be well advised to take care to frame their word of reply with all of the precision they can muster. (Judges 12:6)

ONE will say;
You shall surely discern between the unclean and the clean, and between that which is 'set-apart', and that which is common.
"For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned."

Yet another will speak saying;
"It doesn't make any difference what........."

No man can be obedient to two masters. To heed the ONE, you must despise the sayings of the other.
Whom will you hear? And to whose words is it that you respond in your speech and your actions?

These texts are not at all what they may appear to be to a casual reader, or to those practitioners and claimants whose 'forms of religion' are shallow and are resting only upon appearances.
'Many 'experts' will say.....' and will so speak according the words, to the observations, and according to that 'wisdom' which is of this world.

Passing this way, you will hear whom you will to hear, and will hearken unto whom you will to hearken.
But you cannot reverence every word men may speak, nor follow every call.

Therefore to day it can only be, as it is written; "To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day...."


Sheshbazzar the Hebrew



.
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Old 07-06-2012, 11:48 AM   #10
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the original movement failed in judaism, all we have is cross cultural information regarding the jew


the gospels were all written around the roman empire by romans who partially followed judaism.

Its said Gmatthew was written to a more jewish audience, BUT it still used the roman foundation of Gmark, so by this alone we know it had nothing to do with the original jewish sect jesus had started.


each of the gospels have historical earmarks of where scholars beleive the mythology was crafted

also where it was scribed and where the cources originate are 4 different things.

Gmark = Syria or Palestine

Gmathew = Roman Syria

Gluke= particularly the neighborhood of Ephesus. BUT The place of composition is still an open question.


Gjohn = unknown with guesses everywhere, Ephesus, Syria, Alexandria
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