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03-04-2013, 08:22 AM | #1 |
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2 Kings 8:26 versus 2 Chronicles 22:2
Is there a discrepancy in these two versus? or is there an explanation.
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03-04-2013, 08:33 AM | #2 | |
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Background:
Ahaziah_of_Judah Quote:
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03-04-2013, 08:45 AM | #3 |
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Welcome un-holy.
As a brief response, umm, 22 versus 42, a discrepency? Well, ahh, let's see, I guess ya kinda could say it was a discrepency. If you trot over to answersingenesis, always worth a laugh, you'll find that they say it was a scribal error! Mind you the two words eshreen (20) and arbeen (40) are not particularly confusable, but hey, if you're christian, you can run with scribal error. We don't usually worry about such things, as they aren't particularly central to the religions involved. It's only the gruntiest fundamentalist who would get their knickers knotted over it and, if you're in discussion with said fundie, no sense that comes out of your mouth will have any effect. |
03-04-2013, 08:57 AM | #4 |
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I would refer you to the Rashi commentary in 2 Chronicles 22:2 who asks this very question and provides a very long answer. Also, see Rashi's commentary on 2 Kings 9:29. As a summary there Rashi explains that Ahaziah was appointed king twice: once during his father's lifetime when Jehoram was struck with an illness, and again on his own twenty years later. You will find in Kings that several of the rulers were appointed king when their father was still alive.
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03-04-2013, 09:30 AM | #5 |
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Spin says, that answersingenesis says that it is a scribal error, if that is so, would that not make the Bible fallible?
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03-04-2013, 09:34 AM | #6 | |
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Quote:
You can see how this gets the inerrantist out of some difficulties, although it does not solve all Biblical problems. |
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03-04-2013, 09:43 AM | #7 |
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Toto, that is just great to know that the originals were inspired, now if we only had the originals...
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03-04-2013, 06:14 PM | #8 | |
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There are numerous alleged "copyist errors" and all manner of textual variants in the Bible. My thought is that although this may not disqualify the Bible from being divinely inspired, it certainly does nothing to distinguish the Bible from profane texts.
At any rate, if you want a numerical error that is rather easy to demonstrate but doesn't easily afford the copyist-error dodge, I submit this one: 1 Samuel 7:1-2 reads as follows: Quote:
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03-05-2013, 10:46 AM | #9 | |||||||||||
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Here are just a few of the numerical discrepancies usually dismissed as "copyist errors":
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03-05-2013, 12:01 PM | #10 |
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I looked through the first four on your list. I was terrible in math in high school and still cannot work with it. I also don't have the time to go through all of them.
For the first (which is actually 1 Kings 5:29-30) there is an extensive discussion in the Rashi commentary about the difference from 2 Chronicles 2:2, and he references 1 Kings 8:10. The difference in the number has to do with different activities and different supervising officers, both proselytes and native born Jews. The second case in 1 Kings 7:26 also has an extensive Rashi discussion about the difference from Chronicles. The third case in 1 Kings 9:27-28 also references 1 Kings 10:22 and the Rashi and Abarbanel commentators also discuss the distinctions between 450 and 420 because of different trips. And the case in 1 Kings 4:5-6 versus 2 Chronicles 9:25 also do not refer to the same situation. You can try checking it yourself at this website with an option for clicking on or off for Rashi: http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_...with-Rashi.htm |
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