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07-13-2006, 07:37 AM | #1 | |
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Did Origen refer to christians at all?
The following information has been taken from here:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/04039b.htm It seems quite clear that Origen has been interpolated. The question is this ... Do you think it is possible that all christian references in the works of Origen are plain and simple interpolations? Quote:
Thanks for any constructive comments. Pete Brown |
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07-13-2006, 01:04 PM | #2 | |
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Why don't you provide it and we'll talk. |
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07-13-2006, 01:24 PM | #3 | |
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Given the volume of Origen's work and its transmission apart from the Philocalia, Armitage Robison's point here really does not say anything remotely relevant about the state of Origen's text. Stephen |
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07-13-2006, 02:46 PM | #4 | |
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07-13-2006, 05:07 PM | #5 | |
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essentially inherited the entire contents, and indeed probably the sole management of the preservation of the works of Origen in the physical library of Caesarea. Much of Origen's source material, particularly his more recent works, would have been physically located at this library. Our argument is that Eusebius cut his teeth either interpolating, or creating manuscripts out of the whole cloth, in the name of Origen, starting with de principiis. Constantine sponsored this perversion. Moreover we have the admission of the christian historian Rufinus, in his Epilogue to Pamphilus the Martyr's Apology for Origen Otherwise the Book Concerning the Adulteration of the Works of Origen. Addressed to Macarius at Pinetum a.d. 397. Here is the text: http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=169596 Rufinus must now re-insert the christian refefrences in the philosophy of Origen, as quoted by Pamphilus, because - he claims - the works were interpolated by "the arians", and do not represent christian doctrine. In other words, it is quite consistent to believe that the literature of Origen (and Pamphilus about Origen) contained absolutely no references at all to the fourth century religion Constantine called christianity, until it was perverted by Eusebius et al. Pete Brown www.mountainman.com.au |
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07-13-2006, 05:15 PM | #6 | |
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of Origen's work, - it is quite voluminous. How many works of Origen's are christian(TM)-philosophy free, and how many mention the trade marked word "christian" or indeed reference to the NT. Can anyone provide a quick estimate on this ratio? Pete Brown |
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07-13-2006, 05:27 PM | #7 |
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You could start by looking here: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/origen.html
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07-13-2006, 09:51 PM | #8 | ||
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We have fourth century christian historians making a point in saying that they "corrected" Origen's doctrines (Rufinus. translating Greek to Latin 392CE) because they believed that Origen's work had been interpolated by heathens. Pete Brown |
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07-14-2006, 12:20 AM | #9 | |
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The other passage is in the Latin translation of Origen of Matthew. All the Latin translations have been reedited, as Rufinus tells us. But it sounds as if the suggestion is that the Greek text from which it was made had been altered by Eunomian heretics; of course this sort of thing can happen. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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07-14-2006, 01:34 AM | #10 | |
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Given the density of Origen's writing as it applies to Christian references and themes, the idea that Constantine's henchmen backed Christianity into those text is somewhat absurb. Essentially they would have had to write the entire mss, since hardly a paragraph passes without Origen making a clear Christian reference. In short this seems like a really desperate argument. |
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