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Old 09-16-2011, 04:29 PM   #1
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Default Christopher Price's evidence for partial TF

Christopher Price wrote an interesting article on Bedes site http://www.bede.org.uk/Josephus.htm that provides a number of evidences for the partial interpolation theory for the TF, which by implication can also be seen as against complete silence. Doug took the time to review this article and provide his thoughts. I never got around to responding to his post on page 3 of this thread http://www.freeratio.org/showthread.php?t=304161&page=3 until today:

modern scholarship opinion
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
modern scholarship has rightly recognized that one of them is completely authentic and the other, though embellished by Christian scribes, provides an authentic core of material confirming much about Jesus. [Emphasis added]

This tells me right up front that what follows will not be an impartial examination of the evidence. I can make up my own mind whether the scholarly consensus is well founded. Price's personal endorsement of that consensus is a total irrelevancy.
Unless we know how Price came to that conclusion we cannot say that he is being impartial. He may well have studied the methodology of the scholars and determined it is for the most part sound. If that is the case, then their-and his conclusions are extremely valuable. I do not know that this is the case.

Appropriateness of context
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Josephus' writings cover a number of figures familiar to Bible readers. He discusses John the Baptist, James the brother of Jesus, Pontius Pilate, the Sadducees, the Sanhedrin, the High Priests, and the Pharisees.

This is begging the question. The extant copies of Josephus's writings discuss those people. The question being debated is whether all those discussions were included in what Josephus himself actually wrote.
As a sentence providing a context for which Josphus might also mention Jesus, I have no problem with this comment by Price--esp since the overwhelming majority of historians would not question its accuracy. In addition, the placement of the TF is the perfect context for an account of Jesus in all of Josephus' writings, as it is in a discussion about disturbances between Pilate/Romans and the Jews, mostly having to do with the desecration of the temple (which led to Jesus' arrest in the gospels).

The James reference and modern scholarship opinion
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
It is not the purpose of this article to address the arguments of the few commentators - mostly Jesus Mythologists - who doubt the authenticity of the second reference. According to leading Josephus scholar Louis H. Feldman, the authenticity of this passage "has been almost universally acknowledged" by scholars. (Feldman, "Josephus," Anchor Bible Dictionary, Vol. 3, pages 990-91). Instead, this article focuses on arguments regarding the partial authenticity of the TF.

I certainly have no problem with limiting discussion in a single essay to a single issue, but this blatant appeal to consensus does nothing to make me expect anything better to come.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Although Josephus' reference to the martyrdom of James is universally accepted by critical scholars . . . .

Nor does any suggestion that anyone who questions that reference is something other than a critical scholar enhance my confidence in the argument to come.
I would again say that if the methodology of critical scholars is mostly sound, their conclusions are valuable. I don't think it is wise to dismiss those conclusions.


Linguistic evidence
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Below I break down the TF phrase by phrase to examine its linguistic characteristics and style:

I find nothing in the subsequent discussion defending any supposition that the "linguistic characteristics and style" could not have been mimicked by a forger.
In my mind, the more clever the forgerer would have to have been, the less likely that there was one. While it may be true that a forgerer could have mimicked Josephus, the argument implies that a single forgerer would have to have been very good at producing the 'partial passage' and very lousy at mimicking Josephus in the other parts. It clearly argues against a 'scribal gloss', and it argues against a 'dumb forgerer'. This is a strong argument against a 'whole cloth' TF.


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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
This statement probably could not have been written by a Christian because it so obviously contradicts the portrait of Jesus' ministry in the Gospels. Indeed, it directly contradicts several assertions made by the Gospel about Jesus and Gentiles.

I have yet to find a defender of the TF's partial authenticity who can explain why it was impossible for a Christian to depart from his characteristic ways of talking about Jesus when he was pretending to be a non-Christian. Is this perhaps an admission that conversion to Christianity turns people into robots who can't say anything but what they're programmed to say? Are we to believe that Christians are incapable of any utterances that don't parrot whatever they're told to utter when speaking of Jesus?
The statement in question was "He drew over to him both many of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles." An interpolator would have had to be quite clever to have said this since it doesn't match the gospel accounts. However, what would it gain a Christian to have cleverly written something that was pro-Jesus yet anti-Christian tradition? The level of 'cleverness' here is completely unnecessary, and strikingly opposite those who saw no need to try and be clever--those who put in obvious Christian (not-Josephean) references to Jesus, such as 'he was the Christ'.

The James reference and modern scholarship opinion
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
The validity of Josephus' reference to James' Martyrdom increases the likelihood that the TF is also valid.

Then the validity of that reference needs to be defended, not just assumed.
He did defend it when he wrote this:
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To the extent that readers accept the unanimous scholarly consensus for the authenticity of the Book 20 reference, this argument adds considerable weight to the partial-authenticity theory.
Absence of reference to John the Baptist
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
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Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Josephus fails to make any connection between John the Baptist -- who he discusses at length -- and Jesus. In the minds of early and later Christians, this would have been inconceivable.

This assumes the conclusion. If there was no historical Jesus, then there would have been no connection for early Christians to make.
This seems to miss the point being made. If a later Christian interpolator who believed in a historical Jesus made up the TF whole-cloth, it would have been unlikely for him to not refer to the JTB passage in Josephus, due to the strong connections between JTB and Jesus in the gospels. All four gospels start out with this connection. JTB, who was the fulfillment of OT prophecy as the 'one who will prepare the way', testified that Jesus was the Christ (implied in the synoptics, and explicit in Gjohn). The silence is more easily explained by a pre-existing text, to which an interpolator added a few choice phrases, than one created whole-cloth.


Evidence of an earlier passage
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
There is persuasive evidence that earlier Antiquities manuscripts lacked the phrases "he was the Christ" and "if indeed it is right to call him a man."

This proves at most that the forgery was not done by a single copyist on a single occasion. We know that Christians revised some of their own documents several times. There is no reason to assume they would not have treated Josephus the same way they treated their own writers.
It would also prove that at most the interpolation was done to something that pre-existed, as opposed to whole cloth. We are back to the 'clever pro-Josephus interpolator' followed by the 'stupid pro-Christian interpolator'. The evidence points to the earliest TF being more Josephean than Christian.

We must also keep in mind that this was not a Christian document. I would think also that the logistics of two interpolations would be more difficult than one for this reason, and in general, for acceptance. It requires more conspiracy action.

Evidence regarding Christian invention in Josephus and Philo
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Here is Mason's complete argument:
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Originally Posted by Christopher Price
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Originally Posted by Steven Mason
They have noted that, in general, Christian copyists were quite conservative in transmitting texts. Nowhere else in all of Josephus’ voluminous writings is there strong suspicion of scribal tampering. Christian copyists also transmitted the works of Philo, who said many things that might be elaborated in a Christian direction, but there is no evidence that in hundreds of years of transmission, the scribes inserted their own remarks into Philo’s text. To be sure, many of the “pseudepigrapha” that exist now only in Christian form are thought to stem from Jewish originals, but in this instance it may reflect the thorough Christian rewriting of Jewish models, rather than scribal insertions. That discussion is ongoing among scholars. But in the cases of Philo and Josephus, whose writings are preserved in their original language and form, one is hard pressed to find a single example of serious scribal alteration. To have created the testimonium out of whole cloth would be an act of unparalleled scribal audacity.
Some things do happen only once, even if they're not intrinsically improbable. Besides, the fact that we don't know of other instances doesn't mean it never happened. It just means that if it happened, those documents did not survive long enough to enter the historical record.
Sure, some things happen only once, but that doesn't address the evidence presented against that being the case here.The evidence elsewhere in Josephus and Philo does not support blatant Christian scribal tampering. There is no reason to believe that if such tampering occurred it would not be preserved along with the TF. Yet we see nothing in the JTB account, or any other places that suggests massive invention. James, Peter, Paul, the day of Pentecost, Jesus' prediction of the fall of Jerusalem, and the persecution of Christians--all of these Christian titans and stories could have been added in. NONE of this was added into the text. Conclusion: Christian interpolators were not in the habit of butchering Josephus to serve their theological purposes. The evidence favors a lessor offense (partial embellishment--possibly even scribal notations), over a graver offense--whole cloth invention. This same argument would also favor one interpolation over multiple interpolations.


Justification for rejecting the passage altogether
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
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Originally Posted by Christopher Price
While I agree that evidence of some tampering mitigates the usual strong presumption that the text found in all the manuscripts is original, to presume it is unauthentic as a result takes us beyond the evidence and should therefore be rejected.

I agree that we're not justified in presuming that some forgery implies total forgery. My argument is just that the case for partial authenticity is weaker than its advocates think it is.
I'm not sure what you have in mind here. What makes it weaker than they think it is, in your opinion?


Flow without interpolation(s)
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
one of the more persuasive arguments for the partial authenticity theory is that the text is not only coherent without the corrupted portion, but flows better and makes more sense without the obvious glosses.
The surrounding text flows well and makes perfect sense without any of the Testimonium.
Agree. The argument Price makes here only supports the idea of the superiority of the partial interpolation over an authentic whole TF. No TF is just as persuasive.


The clever interpolator again
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
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Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Far from being established as factual, the "brilliant interpolator" tends to be a last ditch attempt to save one's presumed opinion about the TF.
I am not familiar with any arguments against authenticity that depend on the interpolator's being "brilliant," whatever that is supposed to mean. Price apparently thinks it refers a talent for stylistic mimicry that we should not expect any early Christian to have possessed. I am aware of no case to be made for thinking that the forger had to have such a rare ability.
Agree that the ability to be 'clever' need not imply rare brilliance.

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Second, textual criticism was not a body of inquiry prior to the 18th century. It is unlikely that an interpolator would even think it necessary to select various phrases from all over Josephus' writings to mimic his style in order to deceive 21st century sceptics.
He obviously was not trying to deceive any 21st-century skeptics. The only people he would have been trying to deceive -- if anyone -- was whoever he expected to read the document he was producing. There is probably no way we can be sure who he had in mind as his prospective readership, but it is not improbable that he thought he was writing for the benefit of fellow Christians. In that case, it is at least plausible that he was convinced that he was not engaging in any deceit at all.
How else would adding in Josephean phrases for the benefit of fellow Christians be perceived? Especially if he was so devious as to add in a statement that was in direct contradiction to the gospels (the Gentiles statement)?

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
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Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Third, interpolators were more pious than professional.
All of them? How in the world could we possibly know that?
Good question. I have no idea.


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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
The whole purpose of interpolating something was to say what the original author did not and probably would not have said.
In every case? Same question.
Surely not every case. We are working with likelihoods and common sense. We need to ask how likely it is that a clever interpolator would first interpolate something to mimic Josephus, and then a pious, stupid interpolator would put in the clearly anti-Josephean and pro-Christian language without trying to correct the anti-gospel and unorthodox wording?



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
It would be self defeating to so mimic Josephus' style that you had to imply inadequate, negative, and/or offensive statements and attributes to Jesus.
This assumes a far more detailed knowledge of the forger's intentions than the evidence warrants.
Agree. We can't know what a clever interpolator's intentions are exactly.






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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Fifth, the "brilliant interpolator" would not have described Jesus merely as a "wise man" only to have to add the clarification, "if indeed he can be called a man." Nor would he have placed "he was the Christ" in such an awkward spot.
Obviously, there was at least one stupid Christian involved in the forgery. We have no reason to assume that no other Christian with a lot more intelligence could have had a hand in it. ]

Agree. That's why we need to look at likelihoods. How much more likely is it that a Christian interpolator in seeing there was no reference to Jesus in Josephus, would invent a very clever one using terms Josephus would use and not Christian terms--even portraying Jesus in a way contrary to the gospels (mentioning a Gentile following), and without mentioning a tie to the JTB passage--than it is for Josephus to have written the same thing?

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
Sixth, the blatant Christian glosses count against a brilliant interpolator.
They count against there being only one interpolator.
Agree. see above.


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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Christopher Price
What possible purpose could a Christian have in interpolating such a neutral account about Jesus when no one was arguing that he did not exist or denying that he was believed to have done some impressive deeds?
The passage is used by Christians in modern times as a defense of Jesus' historicity. It does not follow that it could never have had any other purpose in ancient times. The existence of other purposes is proven by the fact that Eusebius and others did quote it in contexts where Jesus' existence was not at issue.
He is not referring to the final TF here. I don't find this argument very compelling. Someone could have just felt there was a need to have something about Jesus that sounded historical. The question is whether that person would have written the passage that contains the Josephean phrases, or something else.


Concluding thoughts: The evidence presented by Price is quite convincing against the 'whole cloth' TF theory. It appears that Doug would agree that the TF was not interpolated whole cloth by the same person due to a number of the evidences presented (please correct me if wrong). This leaves us with primarily one of two options:

1. A clever interpolator first put in language that matches Josephus, and a much less clever interpolator later put in phrases that were more 'Christian'.
2. Josephus wrote the more neutral, still positive, account of Jesus, and a much less clever interpolator later put in phrases that were more 'Christian'.

I lean toward #2 because it I don't have great faith in the 'clever interpolator' hypothesis. It seems unlikely that a Christian interpolator would be more interested in faking Josephus and being able to do so very effectively, than in trumping up a report that provides specifics found in the gospels--mentioning 12 disciples, JTB, Peter, betrayal by Judas, etc.. I also think think it explains the 'called Christ' reference later in the James passage better than if it were absent.

Ted
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Old 09-16-2011, 05:44 PM   #2
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I think #2 would be the option left after applying Occam's razor.

Interestingly, the TF describes Jesus as a 'wise man'. I see this pattern in other pagan writers, sometimes while complaining that the Christians themselves as part of a superstitious cult.

Lucian writes:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/lucian.html
It was impressed on them too by their lawgiver that from the moment they are converted, deny the gods of Greece, worship the crucified sage, and live after his laws, they are all brothers. They take his instructions completely on faith, with the result that they despise all worldly goods and hold them in common ownership. So any adroit, unscrupulous fellow, who knows the world, has only to get among these simple souls and his fortune is quickly made; he plays with them.
Pliny the Younger:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/pliny.html
They asserted, however, that the sum and substance of their fault or error had been that they were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god, and to bind themselves by oath, not to some crime, but not to commit fraud, theft, or adultery, not falsify their trust, nor to refuse to return a trust when called upon to do so....

Accordingly I judged it all the more necessary to find out what the truth was by torturing two female slaves who were called deaconesses. But I discovered nothing else but depraved, excessive superstition.
Tacitus has nothing good to say about Christ, but he highlights the superstitious nature of the Christians.

If Tacitus is correct that Christianity was seen as a superstitious cult by 60 CE, then it seems odd to me that Josephus, writing in Rome and to a Roman audience, has nothing bad to say about the Christians of his time.
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Old 09-16-2011, 07:34 PM   #3
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All the speculations about what a Christian interpolator would write and not write is really futile.

The Church and its writers claimed "Antiquities of the Jews" was authentic and that Jesus was born of the Holy Ghost.

Examine the words of "Origen" in "Commentary on Matthew" X.17
Quote:
..... Now those who say so wish to preserve the honour of Mary in virginity to the end, so that that body of hers which was appointed to minister to the Word which said, The Holy Ghost shall come upon you, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow you, Luke 1:35 might not know intercourse with a man after that the Holy Ghost came into her and the power from on high overshadowed her.....
The very Origen who implied that "Antiquities of the Jews" was authentic also stated Jesus was BORN of the Holy Ghost as found in gLuke.

The authenticity of "Antiquities of the Jews" has ZERO relevance to the nature of Jesus as shown by Church writers that simultaneously claimed Jesus was FATHERED by a Ghost and that Josephus did write "Antiquities of the Jews".
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Old 09-16-2011, 09:01 PM   #4
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Eusebius speaks extensively of the death of James the Just/brother of the load and never mentions the passage in Josephus. He quotes both Clement and Hegessipus on the death of James, and they too do not mention the quote in Josephus. Origin also mentions the death of James and adds a bizarre remark about Josephus claiming it was responsible for the war, but does not quote this passage. (It seems probable that Origin's claim was a later interpolation in Origin.)

This seems to be fantastically strong evidence that the addition of "brother of Christ" was a post-Eusebean interpolation in Josephus.

Did anyone in antiquity notice this passage? Who was the first to discover this passage?

It seems to me amazing that out of hundreds of early Christian writers, nobody noticed or commented on this passage. There are only three passages in our current edition of Josephus that refer to Christian characters in the New Testament (one on John, one on Jesus and one on James). It is hard to imagine that this passage could have been in Josephus, the only well known Jewish historian of the First Century, and no ancient Christian found the passage of sufficient interest to quote it.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
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Old 09-17-2011, 12:15 AM   #5
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Just to keep things in perspective here re the TF - I'll repost my chart from the earlier thread. Putting the account that is now preserved in Slavonic Josephus alongside Eusebius - it does indicate that it is this text that has been used by Eusebius: The SJ wonder-doer storyline, with the Eusebius addition of the 'christ' element, is what has been interpolated into Ant.

Slavonic Josephus Eusebius Antiquities
At that time also a man came forward,—if even it is fitting to call him a man [simply]. His nature as well as his form were a man's; but his showing forth was more than [that] of a man. And there lived at that time Jesus, a wise man, if indeed it be proper to call him a man. Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man;.
His works, that is to say, were godly, and he wrought wonder-deeds amazing and full of power. Therefore it is not possible for me to call him a man [simply]. But again, looking at the existence he shared with all, I would also not call him an angel...And many from the folk followed him and received his teachings. For he was a doer of wonderful works, and a teacher of such men as receive the truth in gladness.... And he attached to himself many of the Jews, and many also of the Greeks. He was the Christ. for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. .......He drew over to him both many of the Jews and many of the Gentiles. He was [the] Christ.
The teachers of the Law were [therefore] envenomed with envy and gave thirty talents to Pilate, in order that he should put him to death. And he, after he had taken [the money], gave them consent that they should themselves carry out their purpose. And they took him and crucified him according to the ancestral law. When Pilate, on the accusation of our principal men, condemned him to the cross.... Moreover, the race of Christians, named after him, continues down to the present day. And when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross.... And the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day.
The Second Mention of the Wonder-doer - -
Again Claudius sent his authorities to those states—Cuspius Fadus and Tiberius Alexander.................many had been discovered as servants of the previously described wonder-doer; and as they spake to the people about their teacher,—that he is living, although he is dead, and that he will free you from your servitude,—many from the folk gave ear to the above-named and took upon themselves their precept... ...those who had loved him in the beginning did not cease loving him......For he appeared unto them again alive on the third day, the divine prophets having told these and countless other wonderful things concerning him. ...those that loved him at the first did not forsake him;.... for he appeared to them alive again the third day; as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him.

Quote:
Originally Posted by maryhelena View Post
So, while Eusebius did his cherry-picking from the wonder-doer story (now preserved in Slavonic Josephus) to ‘update’ Antiquities - his interpolation does provide evidence that an earlier TF storyline existed, ie he did not make up the TF out of his own head. His admission that a ‘forgery’ existed regarding a crucifixion in the 7th year of Tiberius, 21 c.e., indicates that he knows very well the background to the interpolation that he has made into Antiquities.
footnote: edited the chart to colour the "Jesus" addition in Eusebius and Ant.
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Old 09-17-2011, 12:46 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Eusebius speaks extensively of the death of James the Just/brother of the load and never mentions the passage in Josephus. He quotes both Clement and Hegessipus on the death of James, and they too do not mention the quote in Josephus. Origin also mentions the death of James and adds a bizarre remark about Josephus claiming it was responsible for the war, but does not quote this passage. (It seems probable that Origin's claim was a later interpolation in Origin.)

This seems to be fantastically strong evidence that the addition of "brother of Christ" was a post-Eusebean interpolation in Josephus.
See Eusebius Church History Book 2
Quote:
Josephus, at least, has not hesitated to testify this in his writings, where he says, These things happened to the Jews to avenge James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus, that is called the Christ. For the Jews slew him, although he was a most just man.

And the same writer records his death also in the twentieth book of his Antiquities in the following words: But the emperor, when he learned of the death of Festus, sent Albinus to be procurator of Judea. But the younger Ananus, who, as we have already said, had obtained the high priesthood, was of an exceedingly bold and reckless disposition. He belonged, moreover, to the sect of the Sadducees, who are the most cruel of all the Jews in the execution of judgment, as we have already shown.

Ananus, therefore, being of this character, and supposing that he had a favorable opportunity on account of the fact that Festus was dead, and Albinus was still on the way, called together the Sanhedrin, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, the so-called Christ, James by name, together with some others, and accused them of violating the law, and condemned them to be stoned.

But those in the city who seemed most moderate and skilled in the law were very angry at this, and sent secretly to the king, requesting him to order Ananus to cease such proceedings. For he had not done right even this first time. And certain of them also went to meet Albinus, who was journeying from Alexandria, and reminded him that it was not lawful for Ananus to summon the Sanhedrin without his knowledge.

And Albinus, being persuaded by their representations, wrote in anger to Ananus, threatening him with punishment. And the king, Agrippa, in consequence, deprived him of the high priesthood, which he had held three months, and appointed Jesus, the son of Damnæus.
Andrew Criddle
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Old 09-17-2011, 01:13 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM View Post

1. A clever interpolator first put in language that matches Josephus, and a much less clever interpolator later put in phrases that were more 'Christian'.

2. Josephus wrote the more neutral, still positive, account of Jesus, and a much less clever interpolator later put in phrases that were more 'Christian'.
3. Josephus originally wrote the words preserved in Slavonic Josephus (or reworked/quoted them from elsewhere). Josephus used this story in an early edition of War - and chose not to reuse the story in Ant. Later - Eusebius comes along and decides that this earlier wonder-doer story would make a nice historical 'proof' for the gospel JC story. Thus, original Josephan words (from an early edition of War) have been used - alongside words of Eusebius, in the interpolated TF text of Antiquities.

The real issue here is not about some christian additions to the TF - it is about the TF minus those christian words - and why Josephus chose not to reuse this earlier story in Antiquities.
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Old 09-17-2011, 06:09 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Eusebius speaks extensively of the death of James the Just/brother of the load and never mentions the passage in Josephus. He quotes both Clement and Hegessipus on the death of James, and they too do not mention the quote in Josephus. Origin also mentions the death of James and adds a bizarre remark about Josephus claiming it was responsible for the war, but does not quote this passage. (It seems probable that Origin's claim was a later interpolation in Origin.)

This seems to be fantastically strong evidence that the addition of "brother of Christ" was a post-Eusebean interpolation in Josephus.

Did anyone in antiquity notice this passage? Who was the first to discover this passage?

It seems to me amazing that out of hundreds of early Christian writers, nobody noticed or commented on this passage. There are only three passages in our current edition of Josephus that refer to Christian characters in the New Testament (one on John, one on Jesus and one on James). It is hard to imagine that this passage could have been in Josephus, the only well known Jewish historian of the First Century, and no ancient Christian found the passage of sufficient interest to quote it.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
Well, in "Church History" attributed to Eusebius, the author did REFER to the 20th book of Antiquities.

["Church History"
Quote:
20. Josephus, at least, has not hesitated to testify this in his writings, where he says, These things happened to the Jews to avenge James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus, that is called the Christ. For the Jews slew him, although he was a most just man.

21. And the same writer records his death also in the twentieth book of his Antiquities in the following words: But the emperor, when he learned of the death of Festus, sent Albinus to be procurator of Judea. But the younger Ananus, who, as we have already said, had obtained the high priesthood, was of an exceedingly bold and reckless disposition. He belonged, moreover, to the sect of the Sadducees, who are the most cruel of all the Jews in the execution of judgment, as we have already shown.


22. Ananus, therefore, being of this character, and supposing that he had a favorable opportunity on account of the fact that Festus was dead, and Albinus was still on the way, called together the Sanhedrin, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, the so-called Christ, James by name, together with some others, and accused them of violating the law, and condemned them to be stoned.....
Again, OVER 1600 years ago the Church was claiming that Josephus' writing of "Antiquities of the Jews" was AUTHENTIC and that Jesus was the Child of a Ghost.

Authenticity of "Antiquities of the Jews" is IRRELEVANT to the claim by the Church that Jesus Christ was the Child of a Holy Ghost and God Incarnate.
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Old 09-17-2011, 07:50 AM   #9
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Christopher Price is defending the historicity of Jesus by identifying partial forgeries instead of complete forgeries. It's not going to save Jesus.
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Old 09-17-2011, 08:25 AM   #10
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Default Tempting as it may be ...

The article on Bede's site is actually very well organized and every point he makes (for or against) is supported by references to secondary literature.

Still, what irritates me no end, is the complete lack of any mention to Josephus' War book 4.5.2 (Gr. 315-319):
4:315 and for the other multitude, they [the Idumeans] esteemed it needless to go on with killing them, but they sought for the high priests, and generally went with the greatest zeal against them;

4:316 and as soon as they caught them they slew them, and then standing upon their dead bodies, in way of jest, upbraided Ananus with his kindness to the people, and Jesus with his speech made to them from the wall.

4:317 ...

4:318 I should not be mistaken if I said that the death of Ananus was the beginning of the destruction of the city, and that from this very day may be dated the overthrow of her wall, and the ruin of her affairs, whereon they saw their high priest, and the procurer of their preservation, slain in the midst of their city.

4:319 He was on other accounts also a venerable, and a very just man; and besides the grandeur of that nobility, and dignity, and honour of which he was possessed, he had been a lover of a kind of equality; even with regard to the lowest of the people;
Earlier in book 4, Ananus had been persuading the bulk of the residents not to get too radical (ch 3 section 11 = 162-193), and Jesus, another member of the high priestly caste, gave a very moving speech on the wall of the temple advising caution (ch 4 section 3 = 238-270)

There you have every element to explain the current text of Ant 20.9.1 (gr. 200-203) about the death of James the brother of Jesus at the hands of Ananus.

If the text was simply
20.200 When, therefore, Ananus was of this disposition, he thought he had now a proper opportunity. Festus was now dead, and Albinus was upon the road; so he assembled the Sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, [who was called Christ,] whose name was James, and some others. And, when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned.

201 But as for those who seemed the most equitable of the citizens, and such as were the most uneasy at the breach of the laws, they disliked what was done; they also sent to the king, desiring him to send to Ananus that he should act so no more, for that what he had already done was not to be justified;

202 nay, some of them went also to meet Albinus, as he was upon his journey from Alexandria, and informed him that it was not lawful for Ananus to assemble a Sanhedrin without his consent.

203 Whereupon Albinus complied with what they said, and wrote in anger to Ananus, and threatened that he would bring him to punishment for what he had done; on which king Agrippa took the high priesthood from him when he had ruled but three months, and made Jesus, the son of Damneus, high priest.
then a reader or scribe familiar with War 4:315-320 would likely realize the negative portrayal of Ananus in Ant 20 was in stark contrast to the positive one given in War 4:318, prompting a simple marginal note on a copy of Josephus Ant 20, saying something like:
Is this one [Ananus] the same one on whose account Jerusalem was destroyed? If anything, it should have been on account of the murder of Jesus, on account of the [Jesus'] speech on the wall!
This, misconstrued by Christian readers, ends up being the seed that accounts for every single reference to James the Just in Christian literature for centuries to come.

This is not an overstatement! Christian readers could easily misinterpret the passage to refer to James the brother of Jesus, not Ananus. As there was no punctuation in the original text, a rhetorical question of this type can be lost on a reader who was not thinking of War book 4, and interpreted as a direct assertion. Assuming this James the brother of Jesus was the brother of the Lord in Acts, the phrase "called Christ" was added to the text of Josephus. It is more likely that this James was brother of Jesus son of Damneus, who was appointed as the successor to Ananus as recompense for the loss of his brother at the hands of Ananus.

Now, Christians might read it as follows:
This one [James] is the same one on whose account Jerusalem was destroyed! If anything, it should have been on account of the murder of Jesus [Christ], on account of the [James'] speech on the wall!
The reference to "the speech on the wall," originally meant to refer to that of the chief priest Jesus, was interpreted as a speech of James, which Hegesippus manages to weave into the grand story of James giving a speech in the wall of the temple attesting to Jesus as Christ the story recounted in Eusebius' History of the Church 2.23.3-18. It is very long, but essentially says that James was elected head of the Church by the remaining Apostles, was "alone" allowed to enter the Holy of Holies in the temple (i.e., was high priest], was super Just, prayed for the people, was called the bulwark (i.e., a protective wall) of the people, was told to testify against Jesus from the wall of the temple, but instead testified he was the Christ. As a result, he was flung headlong from the wall, and then clubbed to death at the bottom.

Thus we have Origen, in Against Celsus 1:47, saying:
d) If, then, he says that it was on account of James that the desolation of Jerusalem was made to overtake the Jews, how should it not be more in accordance with reason to say that it happened on account of Jesus Christ?
Then again in Against Celsus 2:13, he says:
Titus destroyed Jerusalem on account, as Josephus says, of James the just, the brother of Jesus who was called Christ, but, as the truth makes dear, really on account of Jesus the Christ of God.
Also, in Origen's Commentary on Matthew 13:55, he says:
Flavius Josephus, who wrote the Antiquities of the Jews in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ. And the wonderful thing is that, though he did not accept Jesus as Christ, he yet gave testimony that the righteousness of James was so great; and he says that the people thought that they had suffered these things because of James.
This is picked up by Clement of Alexandria, Origen's successor, in his Hypotyposeis (lost, unless you believe Stephen Carlson has channeled it to his blog of that name), where he says (according to Eusebius, History of the Church 2.1.3-6):
4) And the same [Clement] in the seventh book of the same work says also these things concerning him: The Lord after the resurrection delivered knowledge to James the just and to John and to Peter, and they delivered it to the rest of the apostles, and the rest of the apostles to the seventy, of whom Barnabas was one.

5) But there were two Jameses, one being the just one, who was cast down from the pinnacle and was beaten unto death with a club by a fuller, and another who was beheaded.

6) Paul indeed makes mention of the same just one, writing: But I did not see any other of the apostles except James the brother of the Lord
Verse 5 is clearly Eusebius' commentary, based on Hegessippus (James the Just) and Acts (James who was beheaded).

Jerome, in On Famous Men 2, says:
c) Josephus also in the twentieth book of his Antiquities, and Clement in the seventh of his Outlines, mention that, on the death of Festus who reigned over Judea, Albinus was sent by Nero as his successor. Before he had reached his province, Ananias the high priest, the youthful son of Ananus of the priestly class taking advantage of the state of anarchy, assembled a council and publicly tried to force James to deny that Christ is the son of God. When he refused Ananius ordered him to be stoned.

d) Cast down from a pinnacle of the temple, his legs broken, but still half alive, raising his hands to heaven he said: Lord, forgive them for they know not what they do. Then struck on the head by the club of a fuller, such a club as fullers are accustomed to wring out garments with, he died.

e) This same Josephus records the tradition that this James was of such great sanctity and reputation among the people that the downfall of Jerusalem was believed to be on account of his death. He it is of whom the apostle Paul writes to the Galatians: No one else of the apostles did I see except James the brother of the Lord, and shortly after the event the Acts of the apostles bear witness to the matter.
This is clearly a repeat of Origen, but now Josephus' bare account is solidly welded with the story of Hegesippus.

DCH
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