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Old 06-06-2006, 03:52 PM   #291
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Originally Posted by one allegiance
In the Gospels Jesus prophesied many things. The one thing that I want to draw attention to is the prophesy of the destruction of "Herods Temple". "And Jesus went out, and departed from the Temple: and His disciples came to Him for to shew Him the buildings of the Temple. And Jesus said unto them, "See ye not all these things? Verily I say unto you, there shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down." (Matthew 24:1-2 KJV). About 40 years later, what Jesus had prophesied came true, and the temple was destroyed. But the very act of this prophesy being fulfilled is not even the main point. The main point is that NONE of the gospels make mention of the destruction of the temple, which was and is a well known historical event that happened in 70 A.D. The gospels would have surely made mention of this if they were written or altered after this time.
They do make mention of it - as you have just quoted above.

The Gospels were written after 70 AD (with the possible exception of Mark) but the stories in them are set before that date.

If I write a story set in the 1920's, I might have one of the characters in it make a spookily accurate prediction about the Nazi party in Germany being likely to come to power and sweep across Europe. I can do that because I am writing the story after the events have happened. However, since the story is set in the 1920's, then the story won't mention World War II happening because in the context of the story itself it hasn't happened yet.

The Gospels are just the same. The writers know that the Temple has been destroyed - so they can easily have their Jesus character make an accurate prediction of it, but the writers don't describe the Temple being destroyed within the Gospel, because in the context of the story about Jesus it hasn't happened yet.

Now please explain why your explanation (requiring the existence of a Supernatural character who can prophesise) is more likely than my explanation (which merely requires a semi-competent author).

Even if we grant that both explanations are possible, this is not in any way evidence or proof that your explanation is the correct one.

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It would have just been more evidence that Jesus was who he said he was. The book of Acts, which is a history of the Christian church, doesn't mention the fall of Jerusalem either, nor does it record the deaths of Paul, James, and Peter which all happened in the early 60's. This means that Acts was written at least by A.D. 62 and Luke was written before that. Therefore, the time between the events and the writings is around 30 years.
Exactly the same argument applies here. The author may know of the events, but the story is set before the events have occured - so it does not mention them.

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Also, b/c the writings were within 30 years this would mean that the Gospels had been veiwed by other eyewitness, not necessarily diciples or Christians, but still there were no changes made to the writings. We have absolutely no corrective or contradictory writings from that time, from anyone, denying the accounts of the gospels. If we had...they would have certainly diminished the Gospels right then, b/c a majority of the people hated Christians. The corrective documents would have smothered Christianity.
Firstly, if the events didn't happen then there wouldn't be any eyewitnesses to correct the Gospels.

Secondly, the four canonic Gospels are a small subset of the 20+ Gospels that were around in the early days of Christianity. They are all contradictory and "corrective" to each other - and the fact that a proto-orthodox group managed to smother (as you put it) all the other variations and impose their canon of four Gospels on the developing religion shows that the variety of Gospels was indeed diminished.

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Now that we can truly see that the Gospels were written when they say they were let's look at content. First off, this is not how myths are made. This is how you uncover evidence and record it. I proved above that they were written in the assumed time period which would validate all of the observations and historical markings that were stated during this time.
No, you haven't proved anything yet, but we'll carry on regardless.

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Take this for example. In Luke 2:1-2, we have historically verifiable information: "Now it came about in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus, that a census be taken of all the inhabited earth. 2This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria." Also, see Luke 3:1-2, "Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, when Pontius Pilate was governor of Judea, and Herod was tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Philip was tetrarch of the region of Ituraea and Trachonitis, and Lysanias was tetrarch of Abilene, 2in the high priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John, the son of Zacharias, in the wilderness." Here are more events metioned in the Gospels that agree with archaeology:
-Herod, king of Judea, (Matt. 14:1; Luke 1:5).
-Herodias, the wife of Herod's brother Philip, (Matt. 14:3).
-Pool of Bethesda, (John 5:115).
-Pool of Siloam, (John 9:7).
You've really shot yourself in the foot now. Yes - this is historically verifiable stuff.

And history verifies that the census you talk about happened. Unfortunately, it verifies that it happened ten years after Herod's death.

So either Jesus was born before Herod's death (as Matthew says) or he was born after Quirinius's census (as Luke says). The two birth dates are mutually contradictory and cannot both be right.

As you say - this stuff can be historically verified. Pity that it verifies that the Bible is historically inaccurate.

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So we see that what was noted during that time can also validate the Gospels. And we have already proved that the Gospels weren't written after these events.
Well, so far you're batting 0 for 2 - and haven't proved either of your claims...

Let's carry on though, this is fun.

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William Ramsey, a 20th century archaeologists says "There was accurate metion of 32 countries, 54 cities, and 9 islands", he made no mistakes! Sir William Ramsey was a classical scholar and archaeologist. He taught at Oxford England, Aberdeen. He authored several scholarly books dealing with archaeology and had a major influence upon it as a science.
So? The Iliad talks about real Mediterranean cities and countries, but that doesn't make it true.

That the stories are set in real places does not make them true.

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A very controversial issue is whether or not the Gospels have been accurately transmitted from the original writings down to the copies that we have today. The truth is that the New Testament documents are 99.5% textually pure. This means that only 1/2 of 1% of all the documents, of all the copies in existence has any question about the text. Nevertheless, the accuracy is really even greater than 99.5%. The reason is because many of the copies that have spelling errors, minor word omissions and additions are copied, and those copies contains those various minor errors. All that is needed is to look at an older copy that all of them and the error is cleared up. Therefore, we can easily know what the original said.
This is just utter rubbish. Your website is lying to you. There are more than 30,000 differences between the manuscripts that we have. There are more variant readings in the New Testament than there are words in it!

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I hope you consider this evidence. It is the first step toward the task at hand.
Yep - I've considered it. And my consideration is that it is incredibly poor evidence that not only utterly fails to help make your case, but it actively refutes it when it comes to historical accuracy.
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Old 06-06-2006, 03:52 PM   #292
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Originally Posted by one allegiance
Besides you were the one who asked me...How did I know that you wouldn't be satisfied with any answer I gave.
You did not provide an answer, you provided an apologetic completely unsubstantiated by evidence. It's exactly the regurgitation of what you've been told that I expected with little or no scholarship to back it up.

Now that that's out of the way, perhaps you might now provide us with an extra-biblical contemporary account of the crucifixion story? Not one from 20 years after the event and certainly not one from 270 years after the even. Contemporary. Preferably backed by all of these scholars you keep going on about which you've neither quoted nor named?
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Old 06-06-2006, 03:59 PM   #293
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Originally Posted by TomboyMom
:rolling: pull the other one; it's got bells on it.

Here are the texts you are trying to reconcile:
Matthew 27:5
And he [Judas] cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself.

Acts 1:18
Now this man [Judas] purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.

So if I get you right, what you're saying is that after he hanged himself, which Matthew apparently thought was the end of the story, and in my native English means that he killed himself by hanging, he went out and bought a field? And that the person who says that he bought a field didn't think it worth mentioning that right before that, he hung himself? And each of them purports to be an account of his death? But you have to read them together to realize that after failing at the hanging, he bought a field and died by accident. Right. Do you think you have any credibility now?

Let me ask you this:
If these two accounts were in the Koran, and not the bible, would you still think they were consistent?
Matthew 27:3-10 says, "Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, Saying, I have sinned in that I have betrayed the innocent blood. And they said, What is that to us? see thou to that. And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury, because it is the price of blood. And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter's field, to bury strangers in. Wherefore that field was called, The field of blood, unto this day. Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; And gave them for the potter's field, as the Lord appointed me."

Acts 1:16-20 says, "Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus. For he was numbered with us, and had obtained part of this ministry. Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out. And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood. For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishopric let another take."

Judas brought back the money to the chief priests and elders, but they would not receive it back. That is why Judas threw the money down on the floor. "Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, Saying, I have sinned in that I have betrayed the innocent blood. And they said, What is that to us? see thou to that. And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself." So the religious leaders did not accept the money back.

Such the case with the elders and chief priests then was what they did with it. They would not receive the money back from Judas. What they did was TAKE HIS MONEY LAYING ON THE FLOOR, and they bought the potter’s field with it. Acts 1:18 says, "Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity." Even though he was dead, it was his money (his reward for iniquity, betraying the Lord) that bought the field.
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Old 06-06-2006, 04:23 PM   #294
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Quote:
Originally Posted by one allegiance
Acts 1:18 says, "Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity." Even though he was dead, it was his money (his reward for iniquity, betraying the Lord) that bought the field.
The text does not say that the field was bought with his money.

It says that he bought the field.

It also says that he fell headlong, not that he hung himself and then fell (because the knot slipped or the rope broke).

Please explain how it is possible to fall head-first (headlong) from the starting position of being hanged.
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Old 06-06-2006, 05:18 PM   #295
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Originally Posted by one allegiance
Everything I have said is claimed to be made up. You can think I made it up or not, but this is the explanation from Christians and it is not far fetched. The branch could have broke or many numerous things. There is no contradiction here at all because both are true. A contradiction occurs when one statement excludes the possibility of another.

Besides you were the one who asked me...How did I know that you wouldn't be satisfied with any answer I gave.
So in other words, like many other christians who've discovered IIDB, you got stung by trusting the claims of your fellow christians. You came here, spouted some rubbish, and were stunned to discover that we wouldn't just take your word for everything the way you just took the word of others. Funny how untruths can survive, passed on, century after century.

-Ubercat
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Old 06-06-2006, 05:24 PM   #296
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Originally Posted by one allegiance
Both accounts are true. Apparently Judas first hanged himself. Then, at some point, the rope either broke or loosened so that his body slipped from it and fell to the rocks below and burst open. Some even say that it was b/c he didn't know how to tie a noose, but it could have been many other reasons. Remember, he did turn Jesus in to the authorities, and was foreshadowed a painful death. Neither account alone is complete but it isn't contradictory in any fashion.
So Judas despairingly threw down his 30 pieces of silver in the temple, went and hanged himself, survived the hanging, went back and picked up his money (still lying there) bought a field, and then suffered a spontaneous, fatal stomach explosion? You're right. It all makes perfect sense. We non believers just have to be willing to stop our dogmatic rejection of the bible. :rolling:

-Ubercat
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Old 06-06-2006, 05:35 PM   #297
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Originally Posted by one allegiance
B.C A.D? what about that.
What about Monday? Tuesday? Wednesday? Thursday? Friday? Saturday?

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Originally Posted by Wiki
[Monday] gets its name from the Moon, which in turn gets its name from Mani (Old English Mona), the Germanic Moon god. Similarly, the French name (lundi) and the Spanish name (lunes) come from the Latin name for the moon, Luna.
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Originally Posted by Wiki
[Tuesday's] English and Scandinavian names are derived from the Nordic god Tyr (in Old English, Tiw, Tew or Tiu. In Swedish, Tisdag, Danish: Tirsdag, Finnish: Tiistai).
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Originally Posted by Wiki
[Wednesday]comes from the Old English Wodnesdæg meaning the day of the Germanic god Woden who was a god of the Anglo-Saxons in England until about the 7th C. AD.
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Originally Posted by Wiki
...Thursday comes from the Old English Þunresdæg, meaning the day of Þunor (Thor).
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Originally Posted by Wiki
The name Friday comes from the Old English frigedæg, meaning the day of Frige, the Germanic goddess of beauty.
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Originally Posted by Wiki
[Saturday] is the only day of the week to retain its Roman origin in English, named after the Roman god of time Saturn, calling it dies Saturni, "Saturn's Day". Many of the other days of the week adopted names of Saxon gods in Northern Europe, in Anglo-Saxon. There also exists a possibility that the modern English form derives from Anglo-Saxon 'Saeter daegv', as Saeter "Saturn" was regarded as a correlary of Loki by Northern Germanic peoples.
You might want to rethink that whole BC-AD concept as evidence for Jesus...
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Old 06-06-2006, 09:07 PM   #298
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Way, way earlier in this thread the contradictions among the 4 gospels were "reconciled" by noting the common tendency of eye-witnesses to disagree with each other.

Well, that is true - eye-witness testimony is indeed not the most reliable. But if you're granting that the authors are fallible and make mistakes, well, there goes all possible claim to inerrancy, doesn't it?
 
Old 06-06-2006, 10:21 PM   #299
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Originally Posted by cajela
Way, way earlier in this thread the contradictions among the 4 gospels were "reconciled" by noting the common tendency of eye-witnesses to disagree with each other.

Well, that is true - eye-witness testimony is indeed not the most reliable. But if you're granting that the authors are fallible and make mistakes, well, there goes all possible claim to inerrancy, doesn't it?

Man is fallible, God isn't.
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Old 06-06-2006, 10:33 PM   #300
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Originally Posted by Patriarch Verlch
Man is fallible, God isn't.
Which could be neatly addressed by the statement "man exists, god(s) doesn't."

Hint: assuming your conclusion again.
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