FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 09-28-2007, 10:25 AM   #1
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: London UK
Posts: 16,024
Default Christ and Messiah

From 1st century thread

Quote:
Chris

In Greek, before and even during the Septuagint, christos did not mean messiah, but "ointment, oil". This is how its found in Euripides, Aeschylus, and Theocritus, the latter writing during the third century BCE.

It is only, as far as I can see, in Jewish and later Christian contexts (the LXX and the NT) that christos is used as a translation for mashiakh, Hebrew for "anointed", not "messiah". The Graeco-Roman religion did not have a clear concept for "anointed one" corresponding to the Judaean version.

Therefore Suetonius would not have called just anyone a "messiah", and if the word Christus is used, it has to refer to someone in the Jewish/Christian community would gave the appellation to someone. Josephus points to only one person out of the many messiahs who bore the title Christus.
Can we clearly define the terms Christ and Messiah?

How are they used in the new testament and later writings?

Are they separate ideas that have become entangled?

Is Jesus a messiah or a christ?
Clivedurdle is offline  
Old 09-28-2007, 10:34 AM   #2
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Surrey, England
Posts: 1,255
Default

Hmmm ... I always thought that the NT just used the terms interchangeably.

In the Hebrew Bible, doesn't the "messiah" idea start with the Persian king Cyrus the Great? As in Isaiah 45:1:

Quote:
Thus saith the LORD to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have holden, to subdue nations before him; and I will loose the loins of kings, to open before him the two leaved gates; and the gates shall not be shut;
Ray Moscow is offline  
Old 09-28-2007, 10:50 AM   #3
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ray Moscow View Post
Hmmm ... I always thought that the NT just used the terms interchangeably.

In the Hebrew Bible, doesn't the "messiah" idea start with the Persian king Cyrus the Great? As in Isaiah 45:1:

Quote:
Thus saith the LORD to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have holden, to subdue nations before him; and I will loose the loins of kings, to open before him the two leaved gates; and the gates shall not be shut;
Well, whaddaya make of passages such as 1 Sam 2:10, 35, 24:6, 10, 26:9, Ps 20:6, 28:8, 84:9, etc?


spin
spin is offline  
Old 09-28-2007, 01:06 PM   #4
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: London UK
Posts: 16,024
Default

! Sam 2 v 10 kjv annointed

Quote:
Heb Maschiyach, annointed, referring to a consecrated person, as a king, priest, or saint, especially the Messiah. This is the first reference to the Messiah where this term is used. From this point on others take up the theme of God's Annointed One - the Messiah. v 35 Ps 2.2, 45.7 ISi 61.1 Dan 9 25-26, Jn 1 41, 4 25
P296 Dake.

P549 about Psalm 2 states in a sidenote - Heb Maschiyah, annointed. Trans Messiah (Dan 9 25 - 6) and annointed 37 times(elsewhere in kjv).
Clivedurdle is offline  
Old 09-28-2007, 01:11 PM   #5
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: London UK
Posts: 16,024
Default

Is the entanglement more of priest king saviour?
Clivedurdle is offline  
Old 09-28-2007, 01:50 PM   #6
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2003
Location: Bli Bli
Posts: 3,135
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post

Can we clearly define the terms Christ and Messiah?

How are they used in the new testament and later writings?

Are they separate ideas that have become entangled?

Is Jesus a messiah or a christ?
An interesting verse to consider is John 1:41

The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, "We have found the Messiah" (that is, the Christ).


ευρισκει ουτος πρωτον τον αδελφον τον ιδιον Σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω, Ευρηκαμεν τον Μεσσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον Χριστος

Here the greek text includes an explanation that the messiah is the christ.
judge is offline  
Old 09-29-2007, 02:09 AM   #7
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: London UK
Posts: 16,024
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post

Can we clearly define the terms Christ and Messiah?

How are they used in the new testament and later writings?

Are they separate ideas that have become entangled?

Is Jesus a messiah or a christ?
An interesting verse to consider is John 1:41

The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, "We have found the Messiah" (that is, the Christ).


ευρισκει ουτος πρωτον τον αδελφον τον ιδιον Σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω, Ευρηκαμεν τον Μεσσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον Χριστος

Here the greek text includes an explanation that the messiah is the christ.
But why have they become entangled? Going back to Samuel, there was a huge argument about whether or not there should be kings! Priests have a claim on an older tradition in Judaism, but do they? One of the main arguments between the Greeks and the Persians was over priesthood of believers or a hierarchical priesthood. Kings and annointers are not the same - politically theocracies have brought them together - Fraser discusses how kings would lose their jobs - lives actually - if they did not magic the weather properly!

Are we not looking at the slow invention of a super god man priest king? Hebrews definitely discusses the priestly nature of Christ. Where is the kingly nature discussed? Is it discussed jointly or is it John brings them together?

Can we not track back a history of how these terms changed their meaning?
Clivedurdle is offline  
Old 09-29-2007, 02:51 AM   #8
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2000
Location: Middlesbrough, England
Posts: 3,909
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post
Can we not track back a history of how these terms changed their meaning?
Good idea. Messiah seems okay, but at what point did Christ become the first thing you say when you look under the bonnet, ie, to imply all is not as it should be?

Boro Nut
Boro Nut is offline  
Old 09-29-2007, 04:11 AM   #9
Banned
 
Join Date: May 2007
Location: UK
Posts: 1,918
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Boro Nut View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post
Can we not track back a history of how these terms changed their meaning?
Good idea. Messiah seems okay, but at what point did Christ become the first thing you say when you look under the bonnet, ie, to imply all is not as it should be?
That will make good sense if running low on oil, because chrism is oil. The words 'christ' and 'messiah' have the same meaning, 'anointed'- touched with oil, anciently a characteristic of specially honoured persons such as kings and high priests. The Greek christos is merely a literal translation of Hebrew masi(a)h and the corresponding Aramaic masiha. The transliterated word 'Messiah' was introduced by the Geneva Bible.
Clouseau is offline  
Old 09-29-2007, 06:18 AM   #10
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Clouseau View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Boro Nut View Post
Good idea. Messiah seems okay, but at what point did Christ become the first thing you say when you look under the bonnet, ie, to imply all is not as it should be?
That will make good sense if running low on oil, because chrism is oil. The words 'christ' and 'messiah' have the same meaning, 'anointed'- touched with oil, anciently a characteristic of specially honoured persons such as kings and high priests. The Greek christos is merely a literal translation of Hebrew masi(a)h and the corresponding Aramaic masiha. The transliterated word 'Messiah' was introduced by the Geneva Bible.
It certainly isn't "merely a literal translation of Hebrew masi(a)h". Try to find a classical Greek reference to christos not meaning "ointment or salve". The translators of the LXX got inventive, by starting with a Greek verb (xriw) that meant basically the same as the Hebrew M$X, "smear with oil". It's just that the result didn't mean to Greeks what the Jews used it for. (The Greeks win: it's their language.)

Here's Euripides, Hippolytus, l.516:
Phaidra:
potera de christon h poton to farmakon

Which is this drug, an ointment or a potion?
(You could also check out Aeschylus, Prometheus Bound l.480.) Hard to get past the fact that christos meant ointment, isn't it? Not "merely a literal translation of Hebrew masi(a)h".

(Oh, and could someone quote this for Clouseau to see?)


spin
spin is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 04:53 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.