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12-28-2011, 06:40 PM | #161 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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The Pliny Letter suddenly appears in the sedimentary deposits of commentary upon commentary in the 15th century, never before mentioned by any christian in over one thousand four hundred years. You do understand that the manuscript was "lost"? You dont see any integrity problems with any of this from an independent perspective? Quote:
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Dont you see the fundamental role that has been played by De Rossi in this case? Dont you understand that De Rossi was employed by the Vatican? Dont you understand that De Rossi's integrity is questionable? We dont have to question the Pope, just De Rossi. Quote:
The author's claim is that you do not have this physical manuscript record from the epoch prior to Nicaea, or for that matter prior to Sinaticus. Perhaps the recent Manichaean finds dated to the end of the 4th century are the earliest that explicitly use "Jesus", but these use "Chrestos". Quote:
Chrestos appears first in the archaeological record -this is the clear finding of the article cited. "Christos" does not appear in the evidence physically until very late. Therefore if there is a play of words going on, "Chrestos" was originally being played with to form "Christos" and not the other way around. Quote:
Do the appearance of the fish and anchor symbol on imperial coinage certainly indicate a Christian provenance? Were fish and anchors Christian? Do you expect me to believe this without any evidence except the books of the canonical new testament which we know were lavishly published by the victor of a massive Roman Empire war? Quote:
You are the one either asserting or defending the reality that these Christian texts took over the imagination of the Roman Empire any earlier that the warlord Constantine turned up on the doorstep to Alexandria. To do that you need to point at some Christian art or archaeological relics or other such evidence which indicates the presence of such Christian thinking in the physical record before the 4th century. Graydon Snyder did his best. Are you going to cite an example from Graydon Snyder to support your case? Quote:
Arnaldo Momigliano perceived the Biblical Historians as the insiders, and the anciet historians as the outsiders. The professional insiders in the business of New Testament history seem to have some additional information not openly available to the casual enquirer in the field. I have often wondered what this additional evidence may have been, apart from its hegemonic reverence. Quote:
Have you been following the 21st century case of the Israeli Police Dept aganst Oded Galan? What renovations did the Pontifex Maximus Pope Damasius make to the Vatican and Roman catacombs in the later 4th century in order to start the "PETER WAS HERE IN ROME" tourist industry? Quote:
Snyder believes that one of the sarcophagi lids depicts an infant Jesus with John the Baptist. Do you want to see this picture. Quote:
No I will not ignore the evidence. Quote:
Thank Christ for that. |
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12-28-2011, 06:50 PM | #162 | ||
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12-28-2011, 07:01 PM | #163 | |
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12-28-2011, 07:56 PM | #164 | ||||||||||||||||||||
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You're being dishonest. You've already flatly ignored numerous pieces of evidence. |
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12-28-2011, 08:20 PM | #165 | |
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Drews, who died shortly after Hitler came to power, does not appear to have been a Nazi. (Nazi sympathies of various degrees were common among many German theologians of his time and place.) His work was not based on Nazi ideology and should be not be casually dismissed based on guilt by association, and more than works by, say, Mircea Eliade.
The only online source I know of: Klaus Schilling's summary in English of Bernhard Hoffers' April 2003 Lecture [in German] about Arthur Drews Quote:
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12-28-2011, 09:01 PM | #166 | ||
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12-29-2011, 12:32 AM | #167 |
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Your HO is beside the point. Any answer to "What if P?" is irrelevant (except maybe as a plot device for speculative fiction) until we have good reason to think P obtains.
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12-30-2011, 08:58 AM | #168 |
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I am rather confused about the whole issue concerning "cosubstantiality" and the trinity leading up to the disputes and decisions of Nicea in 325 and thereafter.
Why was this particular issue so important? Presumably if they thought they had an apostolic tradition there was nothing to work out if it was an essential element of their faith one way or the other. Was it because a tradition ascribed to Tertullian somehow was preferred by more bishops than others? IF (and I say IF) all the groups had all the epistles and gospels, then presumably they could see that this was never a heavy subject in any of those texts UNLESS some were more "obsessed" about the phraseology in GJohn more than any other text or issue. And if it was so obvious from GJohn ("I and the Father are One") why was there a debate at all since the Arians would also have had GJohn? If Constantine and others of the elite preferred the Arian interpretation, then what political motivation could there have been to fight about it? If the Athanasius group could overcome Constantine who favored the Arians, then how is it that the "orthodox" took control of the political regime? Here is a quote supposedly from Arius, but I am not sure I understand how he took into account the statements from GJohn: Some of them say that the Son is an eructation, others that he is a production, others that he is also unbegotten. These are impieties to which we cannot listen, even though the heretics threaten us with a thousand deaths. But we say and believe and have taught, and do teach, that the Son is not unbegotten, nor in any way part of the unbegotten; and that he does not derive his subsistence from any matter; but that by his own will and counsel he has subsisted before time and before ages as perfect God, only begotten and unchangeable, and that before he was begotten, or created, or purposed, or established, he was not. For he was not unbegotten. We are persecuted, because we say that the Son has a beginning, but that God is without beginning. —Peters, Heresy and Authority in Medieval Europe, p. 41 |
12-30-2011, 09:55 AM | #169 | |
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That brand of philosophical monotheism that restricted their views of creation also complicated their view of Christ. How could they venerate a second being beside God? In Jewish eschatological tradition this wasn't so big a deal, but within a Platonic ontology it was prohibitive. Christ had to be conceptualized in a way that didn't conflict with the notion that God is an ontological and moral superlative, and thus can only be one and must stand apart from all other existence. The answer was found in positing a "person" as a subunit of a "being." Multiplying the "persons" within a single "being" made it possible to assert one God and three distinct personalities. This led to questions about how the three persons related to each other within that being. The biggest question was whether or not Christ was coeternal with God or if he was one of God's creations. Emanation was popular for a while (Tertullian, for instance), but it meant there was as time when Christ was not really Christ. The idea of a created and inferior Christ did not sit well with his conceptualization as God, and it was asserted that a created being could not save all of humanity. How he was generated from God while still being coeternal with him was the primary question that catalyzed the debate of Nicea. |
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12-30-2011, 10:07 AM | #170 |
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But isn't it true that if they all had all the gospels available they all would have seen the same statements in GJohn that claimed the clear deification of the Christ, especially "I and the father are One." So if they had that text, then how did Paul of Samosata and Arius develop a different idea, or did they not accept GJohn?
In any event, the other sources did not unequivocally make this an element of belief in the Christ, including the epistles. So when someone was accused of "Heresy" what were they heretical against? I presume then that Romans 9:5, Colossians 2:9 and Titus 2:13 were post-Nicean interpolations. Same thing for Chapter 48 of the Dialogue with Trypho: “And Trypho said, "We have heard what you think of these matters. Resume the discourse where you left off, and bring it to an end. For some of it appears to me to be paradoxical, and wholly incapable of proof. For when you say that this Christ existed as God before the ages, then that He submitted to be born and become man, yet that He is not man of man, this [assertion] appears to me to be not merely paradoxical, but also foolish." |
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