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12-06-2011, 05:50 AM | #1 |
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Original Nicaean Creed
As I mentioned elsewhere, the original Nicaean Creed is unusual given how late it was in 325. It is worth noting that it mentioned neither Mary nor the crucifixion! But only "begotten" and having "suffered".
This stands in total contrast to the gospels. Salvation is not described even in pauline terms and stands in contrast to man himself. The original creed had no historical context at all, not even as far as Justin Martyr who was said to have written about the historical context almost 200 years earlier! And yes, it does sound peculiar that he rose *again * since he rose in resurrection only the first time, not "again." All this lack of clarity as late as 325! Then what changed between then and the reformulated creed of 381with its doctrinal additions ??! Note that in 381 he was begotten by God BEFORE the ages, but became incarnate from Mary which is a different stage! The idea that the whole world was created through him echoes the Pauline epistle. |
12-06-2011, 06:04 AM | #2 |
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We have in that creed a sense of a non human Christ and gnosticism together with the passing reference about him being made man (again no Mary or virgin birth ).
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12-06-2011, 10:17 AM | #3 |
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Could I go so far as to argue that what we know as the basic forms of "Christianity" did not develop until sometime in the fourth century? Is the Justin reference to Mary an insertion from the fourth century? Was Irenaeus's writing concerning the 4 gospels from later in the 4th century??
If so, WHAT was "Christianity" in the 2nd and 3rd centuries? Assorted societies and associations of believers in a divine being with assorted oral traditions and practices scattered from Alexandria to Rome to Turkey? Meaning, "Paulist" sects, gnostic ("Marcionist") sects, Judeophile sects, Valentinians, docetists, etc.?? |
12-06-2011, 10:23 AM | #4 | |
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12-06-2011, 10:26 AM | #5 | ||
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You make it sound as if that entails committing some kind of sin. I do not think there is anything sinful about asking questions, either regular ones or rhetorical ones.
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12-06-2011, 12:31 PM | #6 | ||||
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12-06-2011, 01:27 PM | #7 | |||
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If I am not mistaken, Bart Ehrman accepts the Church's narrative of the emergence of Christianity going back to historical events in the 1st century.
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12-06-2011, 01:55 PM | #8 | |
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History bears this out this theological truth, as well as do newsreaders on TV currently. People who have recited creeds, nay, created 'God' with their bare hands, have through the centuries committed every sort of crime known to mankind, and without shame. |
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12-06-2011, 03:17 PM | #9 | ||||||||||
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The only source at the basis of this claim is Eusebius, who sat at the right hand of the Emperor Constantine during the Council of Nicaea. What if Eusebius simply lied about the earlier history of Constantine's centralised empire-wide monotheistic basilica-cult? Quote:
Rufinus of Aquileia, Book 10, Part 6 - Creed of Nicaea Quote:
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Was Irenaeus a Eusebian mouthpiece?. Quote:
Perhaps "Christianity" (and the books of the NT) simply did not exist until Nicaea? Quote:
Bart is married to the HJ. But in another book he writes that Quote:
However the debate may have instead lasted only 300 days once Constantine and his army turned up in the year 324 CE. The victors rewrote the history of the conflict. They may have LIED through their teeth. Times were utterly ruthless and barbaric. |
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12-06-2011, 03:56 PM | #10 | ||
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Isn't it unlikely that the whole Christ belief movement was unilaterally cooked up over night in the days of Constantine and Eusebius by a handful of writers, especially when some claim that the whole association of Constantine to Christianity itself is false?? Isn't it more likely that in the second and third centuries there were assorted small groups of believers in the Christ spread in a number of areas such as Alexandria, Rome and Ephesus?
When you refer to the Nicaean Creed are you referring to the original form of 325 or its changed version in 381?? Quote:
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