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Old 05-27-2008, 07:43 PM   #1
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Default What the New Testament Says about Homosexuality

This is a topic that comes up here on a regular basis:

The Westar Institute (home of the Jesus Seminar) has posted an article by William O. Walker, Jr.

What the New Testament Says about Homosexuality.

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Proposition 1: Strictly speaking, the New Testament says nothing at all about homosexuality. . . .
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Old 05-27-2008, 08:26 PM   #2
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What's all this stuff with greek words? I read the Bible in God's language...English.

But seriously, I can think of two main ways that a fundie could still be anti-gay. First, while the NT is mostly silent on homosexuality, the OT does ban it. Second, the aouthor says this:

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If homosexuality is exploitive, then it is wrong; if homosexuality is rooted in idolatry, then it is wrong; if homosexuality represents a denial of one’s own true nature, then it is wrong; if homosexuality is an expression of insatiable lust, then it is wrong.
On the other hand, the NT in the references mentioned seems to assume that homosexuality would only occur because of explotation/idolatry/denial of one's own true nature/insatiable lust. Thus the fundie will say that all gays exhibit one or more of those traits otherwise they wouldn't be gay (especially the third one as that can be far harder to prove to a fundie that you are being yourself, its the old "you're in denial" argument). This might provide support for more liberal churches, but conservative ones can still claim God hates gays.
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Old 05-27-2008, 09:09 PM   #3
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First, while the NT is mostly silent on homosexuality, the OT does ban it.

That still causes the fundies a problem, though. The OT also demands death for disobedient children and working on the sabbath. This puts fundies in a hell of a dilemma ( pun intended.) They can't use the OT to hate gays while ignoring the fact that they are working at their minimum wage Wal Mart jobs all weekend!
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Old 05-27-2008, 09:11 PM   #4
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They'll then explain that the law was changed by Jesus so working on the Sabaath is ok. Somehow though homosexuality didn't get this (nor the Ten Commandments).
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Old 05-28-2008, 12:52 AM   #5
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Are there known examples of people being put to death for homosexuality in those times? Either in Israel or in the wider Roman Empire?
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Old 05-28-2008, 07:08 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
This is a topic that comes up here on a regular basis:

The Westar Institute (home of the Jesus Seminar) has posted an article by William O. Walker, Jr.

What the New Testament Says about Homosexuality.

Quote:
Proposition 1: Strictly speaking, the New Testament says nothing at all about homosexuality. . . .
It's interesting what's going on in the Anglican Communion on this.

From what I've read, it seems that the more conservative factions in the communion appeal more so to tradition, to the traditional teachings of what they consider to be orthodoxy than to appeal to what the texts actually says on the topic.
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Old 05-28-2008, 10:32 AM   #7
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Um didn't St Paul say it was wrong?
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Old 05-28-2008, 11:06 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
Are there known examples of people being put to death for homosexuality in those times? Either in Israel or in the wider Roman Empire?
If I recall, it was punishable by death in the Roman army, but I don't remember the source for that, or even if it's true.
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Old 05-28-2008, 11:30 AM   #9
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Originally Posted by chrisengland View Post
Um didn't St Paul say it was wrong?
Read the article for a full discussion. There are 3 places where Paul (or whoever wrote the letters attributed to him) seems to condemn homosexuality or indicate that it is unnatural, but the exact translation of the words involved is a matter of some dispute.

Quote:
Proposition 4: It may well be that the two lists of unacceptable behaviors—1 Corinthians 6:9–10 and 1 Timothy 1:8–11—do not refer to homosexuality at all.

The New Revised Standard Version translates 1 Corinthians 6:9–10 as follows:
Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God.
For our purposes, of course, the two key terms here are “male prostitutes” and “sodomites.” It may well be the case, however, that these are not the most appropriate translations of the underlying Greek in the text.


* * *

Proposition 5: Even if 1 Corinthians 6:9–10 and 1 Timothy 1:8–11 do refer to homosexuality, what they likely have in mind is not homosexuality per se but rather one particular form of homosexuality that was regarded as especially exploitive and degrading.
The one passage that does clearly mention homosexual sex is Romans 1:26–27. But in this passage, the sexual activities involved are not actually prohibited. They are described as the result of idolatry and other sins.
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Old 05-28-2008, 12:04 PM   #10
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
Are there known examples of people being put to death for homosexuality in those times? Either in Israel or in the wider Roman Empire?
The Jewish law called for the death penalty for a lot of things, but we have little evidence that the law was carried out (think of adultery.) Enforcing laws is always more difficult than legislating, and at times (both ancient and modern) it seems that there are people who favor a law being on the books even if they are reluctant to ever carry it out, or who assume that the fear of it being carried out is enough rationale.

The Roman system is described in detail here.
Quote:
The lex Scantinia proscribes the death penalty for those who would seduce freeborn boys and women.

“Whoever shall persuade a boy wearing the toga pratextaI to commit stuprum or any other offense…or who shall solicit a woman or girl to do anything for the purpose of corrupting her pudicitia; or who shall proffer a gift or give money in order to persuade her to do it: if the offense is actually perpetrated he is punished capitally; if not, he is deported to an island.”
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