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Old 06-08-2006, 11:10 AM   #41
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Why do you expect us to regard the "Believer's Study Bible" as a reputable source?
i don't expect you to. you can continue living in a fishbowl if you like.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It's primarily the work of W. A. Criswell, a fundamentalist who was apparently largely responsible for the fundamentalist takeover of the Southern Baptist Convention (and who received his PhD from the Southern Baptist Theological Seminary: I expect the "doctoral level" qualifications of the others are of similar provenance). From his obituary:

THIS is the source that you're trying to browbeat me with?
i will repeat:

i am positive that those 40 scholars are more familiar with the biblical geneaologies than the combined knowledge of them possessed by you and your claque

where would infidels be without ad hominems? it's sad, actually, that the skeptics at infidels undermine the reputation of their beloved site by engaging in ad hominems instead of merely responding to points.
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Old 06-08-2006, 12:30 PM   #42
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i will repeat:

i am positive that those 40 scholars are more familiar with the biblical geneaologies than the combined knowledge of them possessed by you and your claque
And I am equally positive that they are not. There are several genuine Biblical scholars around here, and Criswell's hopeless bias and general ignorance is already clear.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
where would infidels be without ad hominems? it's sad, actually, that the skeptics at infidels undermine the reputation of their beloved site by engaging in ad hominems instead of merely responding to points.
You're the one who isn't "responding to points" (those already raised on this thread, which you have still not addressed). Instead, you attempted a classic "Argument from Authority" fallacy, with Criswell and his cronies as the "authority". But it isn't going to work.

...So, are you ready to address the points now? You can start with explaining away the "X begat Y when he was Z years old" sequence. As already explained, messing about with the (well-understood) meaning of the Hebrew "yalad" won't actually get you anywhere, because you can still add up the Z's.
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Old 06-08-2006, 10:46 PM   #43
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But I thought the last time waters covered the earth was around the Pleistocene/Holocene epoch boundary (8,000–12,000 bce)
It is news to me, and a major surprise, that waters ever covered the Earth. That they have done so since the emergence of land plants in the Silurian seems rather unlikely. That they should have done so as recently as 12,000 BCE is out of the question.
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Old 06-09-2006, 11:17 AM   #44
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Originally Posted by funinspace
That I would generally agree with, there is allot we don't know with certainty. I was making some assumptions based on a few other recent posts of yours. Maybe I should step back and ask a more basic question. So is it God-breathed? Just God-inspired, but written by fallible humans? Or?
i don't think those questions will ever get answered in this existence.



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Originally Posted by funinspace
So with such flexibility, as an example: is considering the Book of Daniel to be written in the 3rd century BC, reflecting the issues of their time with the Alexandrian Empire, a reasonable realization?
certainly. there are christians who believe that.



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Originally Posted by funinspace
Vice saying it was written in the Babylonian Captivity, and did predict all sorts of things.
it's possible.
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Old 06-09-2006, 11:20 AM   #45
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
And we don't have enough information to unequivocably state that the flood occurred, that there were plagues in Egypt, that the Red Sea parted, that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, that he was born of a virgin, that his shed blood and death atoned for the sins of mankind, that he was buried in Joseph of Arimathea's tomb, how Judas died, and that God is perfect, right?
you should, and i suspect do, know that my position is that we can know some of those things as well as we know anything from ancient history. in some cases less so, in some cases, more so.
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Old 06-09-2006, 11:44 AM   #46
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And I am equally positive that they are not.
considering that it is safe to say most of those people make a career of studying such things, while you do not as far as i know, your statement is hilariously false and is a blinding example of how discussions with you are generally worthless. fishbowl.

btw, in order for your case to be correct, you would have to prove that people who disagree with you are completely unaware of the objections you have raised. good luck with that.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
There are several genuine Biblical scholars around here,
*looking around*



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and Criswell's hopeless bias and general ignorance is already clear.
why are you harping on criswell? i didn't even mention his name. i mentioned the biblical scholars who wrote the study notes and that it is indicative of a popular belief among other biblical scholars. i am not trying to appeal to numbers or appeal to authority. the reason why i brought them into the discussion is because their position represents the logical outcome of the case i made; that being the use of genealogies to date the flood.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You're the one who isn't "responding to points" (those already raised on this thread, which you have still not addressed). Instead, you attempted a classic "Argument from Authority" fallacy, with Criswell and his cronies as the "authority". But it isn't going to work.
that's not what happened as i just explained.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...So, are you ready to address the points now? You can start with explaining away the "X begat Y when he was Z years old" sequence. As already explained, messing about with the (well-understood) meaning of the Hebrew "yalad" won't actually get you anywhere, because you can still add up the Z's.
this is obfuscation on your part because you can't show that your interpretations are the only ones that can possibly be correct.

check post #38.
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Old 06-09-2006, 11:47 AM   #47
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Originally Posted by bfniii
i don't think those questions will ever get answered in this existence.




certainly. there are christians who believe that.




it's possible.
Thanks! I think I see where you are coming from now. Carry on...
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Old 06-13-2006, 04:01 PM   #48
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bfniii:
Quote:
...So, are you ready to address the points now? You can start with explaining away the "X begat Y when he was Z years old" sequence. As already explained, messing about with the (well-understood) meaning of the Hebrew "yalad" won't actually get you anywhere, because you can still add up the Z's.

this is obfuscation on your part because you can't show that your interpretations are the only ones that can possibly be correct.

check post #38.
So that's a "no", then.

No competent Biblical scholar would attempt to date the Flood from the genealogies: but not for the reason you're implying. Here's why: they are fictional, containing a mixture of mythological and (probably) real persons, and nobody nowadays can tell which is which. Medieval kings did the same, tracing their own ancestry "back to Adam". And we have no means of knowing the politics behind the inclusion or exclusion of various names (there are numerous contradictions between genealogies in different parts of the Bible).

...But none of this involves any imaginary "problem" with the Hebrew yalad, a word whose association with childbirth is quite clear:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Strong's Concordance
Outline of Biblical Usage
1) to bear, bring forth, beget, gender, travail
a) (Qal)
1) to bear, bring forth
a) of child birth
b) of distress (simile)
c) of wicked (behaviour)
2) to beget
b) (Niphal) to be born
c) (Piel)
1) to cause or help to bring forth
2) to assist or tend as a midwife
3) midwife (participle)
d) (Pual) to be born
e) (Hiphil)
1) to beget (a child)
2) to bear (fig. - of wicked bringing forth iniquity)
f) (Hophal) day of birth, birthday (infinitive)
g) (Hithpael) to declare one's birth (pedigree)
So, even though it could be used in a metaphorical or poetic phrase (to "bring forth" something), that doesn't change the meaning of the concept, and it's the right word to use in a true genealogy: as it is used in Genesis 11.

You need to distinguish between scholarly reasons not to use the genealogies to date the Flood (they're fictional, they're unreliable, there was no global Flood anyhow) and apologetic reasons not to do so (they give an inconvenient date, and we can't admit that they are unreliable, so let's pretend yalad doesn't mean "begat").

But you seem to have quietly reversed your position on this anyhow. You said that a range of dates could be accurately derived, not that dates could not be derived:
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
oh lots of people think they can accurately date the flood anywhere from 2000bc to 10000bc. and some people say there was no flood. with such a wide range of opinions, history seems to be silent on the issue right now.
I sought further clarification:
Quote:
I am aware of possible non-Biblical origins of a flood myth in the Middle-East: flooding of the Mesopotamian rivers, and the filling of the Black Sea. Are these the "multiple theories" you're referring to, or is it your position that an alternative timescale can be derived from the Bible?

If the latter: I could create a thread to explore just how an "inerrantist" could ignore the Bible's genealogies and come up with a radically different answer. If it's the former, I need not bother: this would be just another evasion of what the Bible says.

...So which is it?


both
So, you can't actually come up with a radically different answer.
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Old 06-15-2006, 01:31 PM   #49
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Default response to post #48

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
So that's a "no", then.
i am not distracted by the fact that you are unable to prove that your interpretation is the only one that can possibly be correct.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No competent Biblical scholar would attempt to date the Flood from the genealogies: but not for the reason you're implying. Here's why: they are fictional, containing a mixture of mythological and (probably) real persons, and nobody nowadays can tell which is which.
hurling the elephant. perhaps you could be so kind as to show how the genealogies are completely fictional.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Medieval kings did the same, tracing their own ancestry "back to Adam".
not that this means the biblical ones had to have done the same



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...But none of this involves any imaginary "problem" with the Hebrew yalad,
since i am fairly certain that you are unable to show unequivocably that the biblical genealogies are fictional, the issue with the term stands. furthermore, you could also prove your point by polling every scholar, everywhere and getting their response on this issue.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
So, even though it could be used in a metaphorical or poetic phrase (to "bring forth" something), that doesn't change the meaning of the concept, and it's the right word to use in a true genealogy: as it is used in Genesis 11.
i accept your acknowledgement that it could be used in that way. that was the point.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You need to distinguish between scholarly reasons not to use the genealogies to date the Flood (they're fictional, they're unreliable, there was no global Flood anyhow) and apologetic reasons not to do so (they give an inconvenient date, and we can't admit that they are unreliable, so let's pretend yalad doesn't mean "begat").
an ad hominem? from you? no way.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
But you seem to have quietly reversed your position on this anyhow. You said that a range of dates could be accurately derived, not that dates could not be derived:

I sought further clarification:

So, you can't actually come up with a radically different answer.
i'm sorry you didn't understand my responses.
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Old 06-15-2006, 02:01 PM   #50
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hurling the elephant. perhaps you could be so kind as to show how the genealogies are completely fictional
If the characters listed in the genealogies are proveably fiction then the genealogies have to be fictional as well. There was no "Adam," therefore no genealogy which traces ancestry from him can be authentic any more than if it traced ancestry to Hercules.
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