Quote:
|
Originally Posted by Sign Related
"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"
^^"I said" surely is reffering to someone else that's doctrine of God/religious related. And even Jesus surely isnt quoting himself because we would have read near by Jesus saying "I am the Son of God". So clearly Jesus is not referring to himself as the Son of God at all.
|
Jesus is quoting Psalms, as has been noted. This text makes perfect sense within its textual context. He has been accused of blaspheming; he cites a scriptural text in which persons are referred to as gods, thus establishing the precendent for so doing; then he says "Okay, if your own scriptures refers to certain persons as gods then how can it be that I blaspheme because I say that I am the 'Son of God.'" The fact that he refers to himself in 3rd person is hardly a problem; it is not at all unusual for Jesus to do so in each of the four canonical gospels.
Quote:
|
And it is interesting because now the reader of the gospel books has to get the term "I" straightened for every time Jesus even used such the term, if you ask me.
|
So what? That is part of reading: Figuring out what sort of literary conventions are being employed and interpreting the text in light of those traditions. That is just part and parcel of being literate.
Quote:
|
As for the Son of Man... Concerning what I learned... Jesus out right reveals that aint him in Mark 13, Matthew 24, and Luke 17 because he foretold the coming of the Son of Man. The Son of Man is not yet till the fulfillment.
|
Jesus is referring to the eschaton: The culmination of all things. Thus it is no wonder that he is talking in the future: Because the eschaton has not yet come! So, the future language is hardly surprising.
Now, why does he speak of the 'Son of Man' in third person? Because he is quoting scriptures (Daniel 7:13, to be exact)! He has to keep it in third person in order to make the quote work. This is a literary device, no more, no less.
That being said, we do know from the earliest Christian writings that Jesus was expected to return at the eschaton - thus it is quite reasonable to assume that Jesus is here referring to himself.
Quote:
|
But! But there are days of the Son of man which already be here. And again, those sons of men who are as days themselves are not Jesus.
|
I really have no idea what you are trying to say here. If you are suggesting (as I think you might, but I'm not at all sure) that the days of the Son of Man have come if Jesus is the Son of Man then there is a bit of a problem with your argument. Jesus is referring to the Son of Man as a eschatological event. It is not the day
s of the Son of Man but the
day: The eschatological coming of the Son of Man. In the logic of Jewish eschatology Jesus' ministry would not be the day of the Son of Man for it would not be the eschaton; however, there is also an idea current that the Son of Man is active in the world prior to that day (the eschaton, that is).
Quote:
Clue you all in on the fulfillment of the Son of Man with one quote:
Mark 13:34 For the Son of Man is as a man taking a far journey, who left his house, and gave authority to his servants, and to every man his work, and commanded the porter to watch.
^^Once the particular kind of who leaves it is then that the Son of Man is here alone without an ounce of who doesn't belong here. "; the one shall be taken, the other left." Who all ever is left will make up the Son of Man.
|
Uhmmm...again, no clue what you are trying to argue here.
12-20-2004, 04:27 PM
