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Old 12-27-2004, 05:01 PM   #91
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Okay, we seem to be pretty much in agreement now. (This must be an Internet first! A discussion where the people start with somewhat opposing views and over the course of the discussion they accept each other's points and end up agreeing rather than getting more polarised and ending up flaming each other!)

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Originally Posted by jbernier
I would suggest that structurally people are most closely bound in the wake of disaster and more loosely bound when things are going well. I would agree that this could be just because we notice it more at such times; however, I find the idea that this is not just the appearance of closer bounds but closer bounds in actuality (i.e. if it looks like closer bounds, walks like closer bounds, then it is probably closer bounds).
It's probably some of each. People would help each other anyway, but the wake of a disaster has a way of making people realise how much we sometimes need each other's help and shaking them out of their complacancy.

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Let us stress the 'recent,' though. I would agree that there is an increasing movement towards increasing aid of others. I would suggest that this movement has been going on for centuries and is becoming increasingly noticeable. What I am asking is the origin of this movement.
I would say that it is a combination of our natural empathy and communication/transport technology.

Our empathy is always strongest towards those "like us". With the increases in communication and transport over the centuries, our horizons are expanded and the more contact we have with others, the more "like us" we classify them - so our empathy towards them increases.

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I do not recall saying that people inherently dislike authority; I apologize if I did so indirectly or inadvertantly as that is not what I am arguing.
I got the (probably mistaken) impression that you did indirectly when you disagreed with me when I argued the postition against Neorask.

Basically...

1) Neorask says people inherently dislike authority.

2) I said that the evidence (people pretty much always set up authorities on any kind of social structure they invent) showed this to be false.

3) You replied to this by saying that people set up authorities not because it is in our nature to do so - but because it is in our nature to do the opposite, and therefore we reluctantly set up authorities to guard ourselves against our own nature.

I took this to mean that you were agreeing with Neorask.

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This still begs the question of how the exceptional anti-social individual comes to be (and since the anti-social individual is defined in opposition to the social it is clear that it is the anti-social that is posited as exceptional).
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So the anti-social is not the exception? This is very similar to my argument. If authority is to protect us from the anti-social and we are all anti-social to some extent or another then authority is to protect us from everyone.
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This is a bit of a move from your original position, in which you posited a discrete "anti-social minority" that the majority needed to be protected from.
My apologies - I am the one who has been unclear here.

It is not a move from my original position, but a clarification of my original position.

I'll try to explain more clearly.

When I originally talked about an "anti-social minority", I was referring to the fact that there will be a minority of people who break the rules of society - hence the need for an authority to enforce those rules.

However, I was not talking about this minority a a discrete group. If we looked at the rules in a society, for each rule there would be a minority of people who break it. However, it is not always the same people. Almost everyone would break some rules, and some people would break most rules.

In other words (to use an extremely abstract and simplified example), let's say we have a village of 100 people.

There might be 3 people in the village who would cheat at cards.
There might be 1 person who fiddles their taxes.
There might be 2 people who would short-change customers.
There might be 3 people who would shoplift.

Now here, we always have an anti-social minority - from 1-3 people depending on the situation at hand - but it is not the same people in each instance. Indeed, if we listed all the "rules" of the society, we would find that almost everyone would break some rule or rules.

However, most people obey most of the rules most of the time.

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In this articulation I think we are substantial agreement: The only difference is that I would emphasize what you call the "anti-social" norm whereas you appear to emphasize what I suppose we could call the "social" norm.
I think that difference is a fundamental aspect of Christianity's teachings. Christianity teaches that we are all chiefly defined as being "fallen" and "sinners". It emphasises the anti-social (and immoral, but that is a seperate discussion) aspects of our characters because it is trying to convince people that they need "saving" from such a "fallen" and "sinful" state.

Basically, if each person is 95% social and 5% anti-social (I realise you can't put actual numbers on this, but bear with me), Christianity would seem to concentrate on the 5% and say that we are not "perfectly" social - therefore we are anti-social, whereas I would look at the 95% and say that we are basically social.

It is basically (to borrow from - and mangle somewhat - a cliche) a glass-almost-full or glass-NOT-full question.

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Sure the synoptic gospels make some references to Hades and Gehenna (note that there is no clear reference to these concepts in GofJohn). However, I would argue that they are not a significant aspect of New Testament theology; they are more far significant in later Christian (particularly Western, i.e. RC and Protestant) theology then the Biblical texts.
We are going fairly off topic here (as a GRD moderator I may have to reprimand myself for this) but I agree.

I would even go so far as to say that modern Christian theology often bears little resemblence to the Biblical texts. This is something that always amuses me when Literalists try to take the texts and read them literally, but still need to twist and interpret them to make them follow modern Protestant theology rather than actually reading them literally (with an open mind as to their interpretation) and seeing what the texts actually say.

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I would suggest that "eternal" most properly refers to a quality of life rather than a quantity. That is, they are a recognition of the isolation, loneliness and despair intrinsic in a wholly self-centred existence.
I think I would both disagree with you and with modern Christian theology. I interpret the Bible as saying that the souls of most (but not all) Christians are conscious forever and the souls of non-Christians are destroyed in the eternal flames (note that it is the flames and smoke that are described as eternal, not the "punishment" in them).
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Old 12-28-2004, 05:05 AM   #92
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Originally Posted by Pervy Hobbit Fancier
Okay, we seem to be pretty much in agreement now. (This must be an Internet first! A discussion where the people start with somewhat opposing views and over the course of the discussion they accept each other's points and end up agreeing rather than getting more polarised and ending up flaming each other!)
I share your amazement. I realized we were largely in agreement yesterday and thought "Holy @$*%, how did this happen?" More on the rest of your post later, as I am about to drive home from my parents' after much Christmas cheer (read: too much red wine at my best friend's party last night).
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Old 12-29-2004, 03:36 PM   #93
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Originally Posted by jbernier
All of which might be quite true but is completely irrelevant to what I posted, which was an exegesis of a certain passage from Galatians. btw, I am not sure why you put Paul in quotation marks as I know of no scholar who has argued that Galatians was not written by the historical figure of Paul.
But it does have to do with what you posted, you just wished to only show a small amount of the much bigger 'picture', which is what I am mostly concerned with.

'Paul' is a supposed historic figure, I do not accept him completely as a real person based on his supposed writings. As I've pointed out many times already, contradictions can't exist in real life, so one person can't be counted on for much if they constantly contradict themselves. This is especially true when one can only be judged by their 'writings', without actually being able to also observe their actions as well.

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Originally Posted by jbernier
If there was insufficient argumentation presented for it to be "worthy of a more detailed explanation" then it would not follow that there was insufficient data to reject the argument? I think you might be shooting yourself in the foot here. btw, your "of course it does" is a tacit acknowledge of my statement that I presented sufficient reasoned argumentation to warrant such a response. I think you might be shooting the other foot, now.
The "I think" should show that you do not know for sure, which is correct, because it is a wrong assumption. Very few snippets from a passage are going to honestly speak for themselves, especially when taken out of context. The part you presented was an ungrouned assertion when taken through more complete context from the passage itself.


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Originally Posted by jbernier
So you admit that you have ruled out the possibility that one can 'prove the Bible to be true' a priori. What is the point of entering into discussion about this with you, as you have already decided that any argument I will put forth must be wrong for I arguing an impossibility?
Because it doesn't have to do with a christian's argument, it has to do with their avoidnce that I find fascinating.



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Originally Posted by jbernier
Ah, the old "anyone seriously reading" argument: i.e. if you disagree with me it is because you have done your homework. Of course, the problem here is that I, a M.A. student in Biblical Studies in a non-confessional, state-funded, public, university has done my homework - so this argument (which is really an ad hominen and thus already a logical fallacy) falls flat on its face.
It might easily be seen as an old argument, afterall, I do use it a lot, but not to 'win' an argument, far from that, but to simply state the truth. As far as an ad hominen, that is another groundless assertion on your part as well as leaving yourself in contradiction once again with that, and with your claims.

I can't prove or disprove the 'OT'. I can cite many places where it resides in lies and contradiction, but as far as for it being untrue, I can not yet do that. It remains though a great ungrounded assertion that has yet to be ever shown as true. Now the 'NT' is quite a different story. On it's own, it does not hold up, but completely 'drowns' when trying to connect itself with the 'OT' which is the bible. An even more absurd assertion made on top of another.

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Originally Posted by jbernier
Of course, asking "Do the Old and New Testaments connect?" is not the same question as "Is the Bible true?" What you are really doing here is substituting one question for another (btw, I am becoming increasingly convinced that the thought of the Old and New Testaments stand in far greater continuity than most people - including most scholars and devout Christians - generally perceive. That might just be because I am ignorant, though - not because I read, study, write about and teach the Biblical texts for a living). More than anything, I am making an anthropological argument: That when taken as a series of texts that have something to say about human existence, the Biblical texts offer remarkable insight into what it means to be human.
The later part has some sense, yes. The bible, warts and all, is a good study into human behavior, but about any writing can offer some insight as well. For being a work of truth, no, then it would have to connect. Having to 'NT' 'tagging along', this can not be. You might see it more differently if the bible really consisted with the qu'ran and the book of mormon inclosed.
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