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Old 02-15-2013, 08:48 AM   #391
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You seem to be convinced by the opinion of the so-called experts rather than actual evidence.
Convinced of what?

What opinion am I convinced of?

Tell us!
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Old 02-15-2013, 11:05 AM   #392
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Only those who are Myopic and illogical argue that the Pauline letters are earlier than the Jesus story in the Canon because they lack details about Jesus.

If we employ such absurdities then we can argue that Revelation by John was written BEFORE the Gospels and the Pauline letters because Revelation by John lacks details about Jesus and also lack details about the Pauline writers.

If we employ such logical fallacies then it can be argued the Epistle of James was composed BEFORE ALL the Gospels and ALL the Pauline letters because Epistle James lacks details about Jesus and the Pauline writings.

Again, if we employ such flawed methodology then it can be argued that the very Epistle Hebrews was composed BEFORE ALL the Gospels and the Pauline letters because it lacks details of Jesus and the Pauline writers.

In fact, if we use Only lack of details about Jesus to date the books of the Canon then it can be argued the Pastorals were composed BEFORE all the Gospels and the Pauline letters to the Churches because there is far less detail about Jesus in the Pastorals than the letters to Corinthians, Romans, Philippians and Galatians.
So here we have aa admitting that, let’s see, the Pauline letters, the Revelation of John, the epistle of James, the epistle to the Hebrews, all lack any details about the Gospel Jesus and the Gospel story, characters, setting, time place and agencies of the death, etc. etc., but he calls it "absurd" to think that this vast void could possibly point to a date of composition for these documents (which comprise the great portion of the non-Gospel and Acts part of the NT, to which we can add the pseudo-Paulines, the Johannine epistles, 1 Peter and Jude which likewise contain an equal void on such details, with 2 Peter being doubtful as well) BEFORE the Gospels which are the first to contain any such details. A “flawed methodology” aa calls it. A "logical fallacy."

And on what does he base the opposite claim, that all these writers and their communities did know of the Gospel story and all those missing details? On “born of woman”? On the bare epistolary ‘fact’ of Jesus having been crucified? On anything that doesn’t amount to a colossal case of begging the question?

(We also have to make the qualification that it doesn't even have to be before the Gospels were composed that all these documents had to have been written. In some cases, it need merely be the case that the documents were written before the Gospels were disseminated and became known beyond their own communities, where they may even not have been originally regarded as history.)

AA is tearing me to shreds??? That’s a joke, right, Jake?

Earl Doherty
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Old 02-15-2013, 12:49 PM   #393
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If we employ such absurdities then we can argue that Revelation by John was written BEFORE the Gospels ...
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Is it absurd to think that Revelation was written before the Gospels? :huh:
Fantastic.

It is also absolutely absurd to think that The Revelations of Paul were composed before the Jesus story was known especially when Paul claimed he persecuted the Church.
There seems to be a disconnect here.

How is 'Revelation by John' translatable as, or connectible to 'The Revelations of Paul ? '

(whatever that is. The apocryphal 'Revelation of Paul'?)

Their entire writing styles, and focus are entirely different, if not in outright opposition.

And given Justin's account of the works used and familiar to him and the christian church of his day, it is certain the 'Revelation by John' was known, while any of 'The Revelations of Paul ? ' were as yet (c. 150 CE) completely unheard of.

'The Book of 'Revelations' by JOHN' was not based on a historical JC, does not require a historical earthly JC, and could very well have been composed well before the Gospels.
Whereas 'Acts of The Apostles', and the various 'Pauline' situations and statements reported in Acts and Paul's Epistles absolutely demand that there had been a historical JC in their past.
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Old 02-15-2013, 02:26 PM   #394
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Originally Posted by aa5874
Only those who are Myopic and illogical argue that the Pauline letters are earlier than the Jesus story in the Canon because they lack details about Jesus.

If we employ such absurdities then we can argue that Revelation by John was written BEFORE the Gospels and the Pauline letters because Revelation by John lacks details about Jesus and also lack details about the Pauline writers.

If we employ such logical fallacies then it can be argued the Epistle of James was composed BEFORE ALL the Gospels and ALL the Pauline letters because Epistle James lacks details about Jesus and the Pauline writings.

Again, if we employ such flawed methodology then it can be argued that the very Epistle Hebrews was composed BEFORE ALL the Gospels and the Pauline letters because it lacks details of Jesus and the Pauline writers.

In fact, if we use Only lack of details about Jesus to date the books of the Canon then it can be argued the Pastorals were composed BEFORE all the Gospels and the Pauline letters to the Churches because there is far less detail about Jesus in the Pastorals than the letters to Corinthians, Romans, Philippians and Galatians.
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So here we have aa admitting that, let’s see, the Pauline letters, the Revelation of John, the epistle of James, the epistle to the Hebrews, all lack any details about the Gospel Jesus and the Gospel story, characters, setting, time place and agencies of the death, etc. etc., but he calls it "absurd" to think that this vast void could possibly point to a date of composition for these documents (which comprise the great portion of the non-Gospel and Acts part of the NT, to which we can add the pseudo-Paulines, the Johannine epistles, 1 Peter and Jude which likewise contain an equal void on such details, with 2 Peter being doubtful as well) BEFORE the Gospels which are the first to contain any such details. A “flawed methodology” aa calls it. A "logical fallacy."

And on what does he base the opposite claim, that all these writers and their communities did know of the Gospel story and all those missing details? On “born of woman”? On the bare epistolary ‘fact’ of Jesus having been crucified? On anything that doesn’t amount to a colossal case of begging the question?

(We also have to make the qualification that it doesn't even have to be before the Gospels were composed that all these documents had to have been written. In some cases, it need merely be the case that the documents were written before the Gospels were disseminated and became known beyond their own communities, where they may even not have been originally regarded as history.)

AA is tearing me to shreds??? That’s a joke, right, Jake?

Earl Doherty
Please, Doherty do you see the word 'IF'??

I admit your methodology is hopelessly flawed.

If Lack of details about Jesus in the Pauline letters mean the Gospels were composed AFTER the Pauline letters then Lack of Details about Paul in the Gospels means the Gospels were composed before the Pauline letters based on YOUR FLAWED CONTRADICTORY methodology.

I do not employ your hopelessly flawed methodology to make arguments for late Pauline writings and Hebrews.
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Old 02-15-2013, 02:32 PM   #395
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The teachings of the very character called Jesus in the short gMark is far less developed than those in the Pauline writings and Hebrews.

In the short gMark Jesus only claimed he would resurrect--that is all.

In the Epistles, Jesus was a Sacrificial Lamb who gave his life for the Remission of the Sins of ALL mankind.
GJohn says that too (for God so loved the world). Even Mark says he came to give his life as a ransom for many in 10:45:

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For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.

Again I ask: Why didn't Paul refer to Jesus as a miracle worker or healer, or teacher clearly in any place at all when he certainly could have? Did those things mean nothing to 'Paul'?

Is it really all that surprising for an early 'advanced' theology to have developed out of a man who was killed on passover and who others said had been resurrected? It would have been OBVIOUS to any Jew who wasn't too repulsed by the crucifixion, that his death could have been seen as a sacrifice for sins, and the resurrection as the proof. It's not an advanced theology, aa. It is almost inevitable that such a theology would have quickly arisen if the most basic claims were believed.

I'm not saying there was no evolution of ideas, but I am saying that the ideas of someone like Paul could have easily come about very soon after the crucifixion.
Again, in Mark 10.45 Jesus did NOT STATE he would be a Sacrifice for Remission of Sins.

The word RANSOM has nothing whatsoever to do with Remission of Sins or that without the resurrection all mankind would remain in Sin.

1. Ransom

Noun---A sum of money or other payment demanded or paid for the release of a prisoner.

2. Ransom
Verb--Obtain the release of (a prisoner) by making a payment demanded: "the lord was captured in war and had to be ransomed".

Remission of Sins by the Resurrection of Jesus is NOT a Ransom.

1 Corinthians 15:17 KJV
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And if Christ be not raised , your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
The Pauline teaching of the resurrection for Remission of Sins was developed AFTER the short gMark.

Your refusal to read the plain English of Mark is nonsense, aa. Just what do you think the author was saying if it wasn't that Jesus paid the price through his death and resurrection for the salvation of others from their sins? Why do you think the author of Mark had Jesus forgiving others of their sins? It's a very similar theology of salvation of others that Paul and gJohn wrote about, aa.
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Old 02-15-2013, 02:44 PM   #396
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Is it really all that surprising for an early 'advanced' theology to have developed out of a man who was killed on passover and who others said had been resurrected? It would have been OBVIOUS to any Jew who wasn't too repulsed by the crucifixion, that his death could have been seen as a sacrifice for sins, and the resurrection as the proof. It's not an advanced theology, aa. It is almost inevitable that such a theology would have quickly arisen if the most basic claims were believed.
No, No, Ted. No Jew is going to find value in a physical, flesh and blood, crucifixion. Such an idea would be, as Paul wrote, a stumbling block. Human sacrifice, under the Law, would be an aberration and an abomination.
The animal sacrifice for sins set the pattern. IF the actual crucifixion happened during Passover the comparisons could be obvious and nearly immediate for one familiar with the OT writings--and especially passages like Isaiah 53--someone like Paul. It would have been strange for their NOT to have been such a theology early after the crucifixion and alleged resurrection. The idea that there needed to be 100 years or so for the development of these ideas is pure fantasy and nonsense.

The very fact that Philo was writing about a heavenly man shows that the idea was around when Paul allegedly lived. How hard would it have been for Paul to apply the idea to this crucified man that many had thought was going to be the Messiah and were now claiming had resurrected? Not hard at all.

You say gJohn was written early -- prior to the Pauline writing, yet gJohn doesn't refer to a heavenly man and Paul does, and Paul's writings don't reference gJohn! I think all of this could easily have happened in tandom and early, and is reasonably explained by the idea that Paul -- perhaps having the greatest insight into idea of salvation for sins -- was very focused on the meaning of the resurrection and NOT on the events of Jesus' life, which others found more appealing.
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Old 02-15-2013, 03:32 PM   #397
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...Your refusal to read the plain English of Mark is nonsense, aa. Just what do you think the author was saying if it wasn't that Jesus paid the price through his death and resurrection for the salvation of others from their sins? Why do you think the author of Mark had Jesus forgiving others of their sins? It's a very similar theology of salvation of others that Paul and gJohn wrote about, aa.
What is wrong with your English??? The Theology of Paul and John is very different to that of the short gMark.

In the short gMark Jesus did NOT need to to be crucified and resurrect to forgive sins. The short Mark Jesus only needs to be considered by faith to be the Son of God for Remission of Sins.

Mark 2:5 KJV
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When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee.
In the Pauline writings the Sick with Palsy could NOT have had his sins forgiven and his Faith would have been in Vain if Jesus did NOT resurrect.

1 Corinthians 15:17 KJV
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And if Christ be not raised , your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
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Old 02-15-2013, 03:52 PM   #398
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'The Book of 'Revelations' by JOHN' was not based on a historical JC, does not require a historical earthly JC, and could very well have been composed well before the Gospels.
Anything is possible but what is your argument?? Are you arguing that Revelation by John was composed before stories of Jesus were known??

You would need to present corroborative evidence and not just state it is possible. Anything is possible when there is no evidence.

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..... 'Acts of The Apostles', and the various 'Pauline' situations and statements reported in Acts and Paul's Epistles absolutely demand that there had been a historical JC in their past.
Your statement is in error. Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline letters DEMAND a Mythological Jesus.

Only a Mythological Jesus can Resurrect, ascend in a cloud and send a Holy Ghost to give Power to the disciples on the Day of Pentecost to preach the gospel.

In Acts of the Apostles, the supposed life and miracles of Jesus were made Obsolete and Irrelevant when the very Jesus told the disciples that the MUST wait for the Holy Ghost BEFORE they could preach the Gospel.

Acts 1
Quote:
....4 And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me. 5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.
Similarly, the Pauline writers DEMANDED a Mythological Jesus when it was claimed Jesus MUST Resurrect for the Christian Faith and Remission of Sins.

1 Corinthians 15:17 KJV
Quote:
And if Christ be not raised , your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings DEMANDED MYTHOLOGY.
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Old 02-15-2013, 04:06 PM   #399
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'The Book of 'Revelations' by JOHN' was not based on a historical JC, does not require a historical earthly JC, and could very well have been composed well before the Gospels.
Anything is possible but what is your argument?? Are you arguing that Revelation by John was composed before stories of Jesus were known??

You would need to present corroborative evidence and not just state it is possible. Anything is possible when there is no evidence.
We don't know when the 'Revelations' of John was written, only that it was before Justin's 'First Apology' circa 150 CE, because he mentions it.
And Acts and Paul were then yet unknown.

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar

..... 'Acts of The Apostles', and the various 'Pauline' situations and statements reported in Acts and Paul's Epistles absolutely demand that there had been a historical JC in their past.
Your statement is in error. Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline letters DEMAND a Mythological Jesus.
...........

Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings DEMANDED MYTHOLOGY.
I concede that you are entirely correct here. Sorry for my error.

The idea however is consitent that Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings demand at least an imagined earthly JC to be in that past to fit their story line.
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Old 02-15-2013, 04:25 PM   #400
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Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings DEMANDED MYTHOLOGY.
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I concede that you are entirely correct here. Sorry for my error.

The idea however is consitent that Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings demand at least an imagined earthly JC to be in that past to fit their story line.
The story of Jesus only makes sense if he was considered to be a real Son of God who was on earth, that is, it must be believed from the very start that Jesus did carry out all the miracles, was crucified, suffering appearing to be human and then Resurrected and ascended.

God made Adam and Eve and God made Jesus his only begotten Son. It is all an almagamation of Jewish/ Roman/ Greek mythology.
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