Loomis

In Numbers 13:16 Moses gave Hoshea son of Nun the name Jesus.

Was the name Jesus exalted in Numbers 13:16?

Loomis

What about Sirach 46? (150 BC)

The very first verse says the name Jesus implies, “the great savior of God's chosen ones.”

http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/sirach/sirach46.htm

Was the name ‘Jesus’ exalted in 150 BC?

Loomis

In Matthew 1:21 the angel said that the baby would be named Jesus for a specific reason.

The angel’s rationale was that the baby would be named Jesus because he would save his people from their sins.

The angel’s statement makes most sense if it was already understood that the name had some significance.

Was the name ‘Jesus’ exalted in Matthew 1:21?

Loomis

So what?

Was ‘Paul’ ever really in a position to know anything?

Your argument is based on the premise that ‘Paul’ was a real person who lived in Jesus’ lifetime - and that Philippians 2:9 and 1 Corinthians 2:2 were written by the same author.

Right?

Jane H

There's an awful lot that could be said about this poem, but I'll sketch an answer and we can take it from there.

I wouldn't get hung up on the term “name”. What's going on in this passage doesn't really follow the sort of usage that the English word would suggest.

This is a powerful passage outlining Paul's high christology; the poem may even be pre-Pauline. There are references to Adam here. But the fullest reference is Isaiah 45:23. As always, the full context is vital for Paul, and v21-25 are particularly important here. Paul is adapting a fiercely monotheistic Jewish passage and applying it to Jesus.

Essentially, Paul is writing that the one who, before becoming human, possessed divine equality but did not regard that status as something to exploit; instead he interpreted it as a vocation to obedient humiliation and death; and that God the Father acknowledged the truth of this interpretation by exalting him to share his own divine glory.

I hope this helps.

DCHindley

Of course it was on the night of his sacrificial death, on the 14th or 15th of Nisan of the year 29, or was that 30, or are Nikos Kokkinos and Hugh Schonfield right and it is 36 CE?

John depicts Jesus dying on Nisan 14, and Mark, Matthew and Luke on Nisan 15. Since we don't really know for sure how the Jewish calendar equated with the Roman Julian calendar, I'll go by the Babylonian calendar, which is known and uses the same lunar months as the Jewish calendar. The Julian dates are double dated because by the Jewish calendar the day begins in the evening and ends at sundown:

Julian Yr.	Nisan 14.	Nisan 15.
29 CE.	Apr 18/19 (Mon/Tue).	Apr 19/20 (Tue/Wed).
30 CE.	Apr 7/8 (Fri/Sat).	Apr 8/9 (Sat/Sun).
36 CE.	Apr30/May 1 (Mon/Tue).	May 1/2 (Tue/Wed).

Of course, these are all LIES!

DCH

Loomis

It doesn’t explicitly say how. It’s ambiguous.

On one hand it only says that he did exalt Jesus - and that when he did he gave him a name “that is above every name.”

On the other hand it can be inferred that the giving of the name was the manifestation of the exaltation.

Since it is fiction I guess it is up to the reader’s imagination to supply the answer.

Loomis

It says that he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death on a cross.

Don’t blame me. I didn’t write it. That’s just what it says. :huh:

Loomis

Yes. That should be obvious.

Loomis

Maybe so. But in Philippians 2:9 the name Jesus was a reward for someone who humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death on a cross.

Again – don’t blame me. I didn’t write this stuff. I’m just calling it the way I see it.