mike_decock

I've heard it argued that gMark was written after 70CE to a Jewish audience in which the passion of Jesus reflects the suffering of the Jews in Jerusalem. Can we draw this analogy even further by considering the following parallels?

Jesus symbolizes Jerusalem.
The 12 Disciples symbolizes the 12 Tribes of Israel.
Judas symbolizes the rebellion movement started by Judas the Galilean (according to Josephus).

Are there more parallels like this?

-Mike...

Vinnie

Mark was either written slightly before or slightly after 70 C.E. in my opinion. What evidence would lead you to view Mark as writing after? Surely not thiose parallels? Rather, they may simply be historical traditions (I accept all three, Jesus existed, called the twelve, had a follower named Judas who betrayed him).

Vinnie

spin

Why exactly do you think that?

(And do you think that Daniel was written just after the arrival of the Persians into Babylon?)


spin

offa

If you read (understand) Josephus you will learn that their was more than one location called Jerusalem. The high priest Caiaphas resided in the other Jerusalem (the one destoyed in 70 CE). Jesus was tried and crucified at another location in 33 CE and, if readers are trying to decipher a prophesy that was not a prophesy, Jesus was talking about events that already happened. He was talking about after his Jerusalem was invaded.

mike_decock

I have no real opinion on when Mark was written. Could be 50CE or 150CE as far as I know. I just consider what little knowledge I have from whatever viewpoint grabs my attention.

I was watching a From Jesus To Christ - The First Christians yesterday when one of the scholars stated that gMark was written to a Jewish audience after the destruction of Jerusalem and I wanted to consider it from that viewpoint.

Another element that made more sense to me from this viewpoint was Mark 15:34 (My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?). With Jesus symbolizing Jerusalem, that phrase would quite eloquently capture how the Jews must have felt at the time.

-Mike...

spin

Mark contains two interesting Latin words, 1) denarius and 2) praetorium. The coins used in Judea were shekels (and there are shekels produced by Roman governors). Why does Mark use the Latin word praetorium (praitwrion), when he could have used a Greek word -- he is after all writing in Greek, and if he were translating from Hebrew it would be natural to use a Greek translation (or would anyone want to postulate a near perfect Hebrew rendering of the Latin "Praetorium" which then is transliterated into Greek?). The existence of these two words suggests that Mark was written somewhere closer to the heart of Roman life, where these words were in common use.


spin

mike_decock

A Greek-speaking Jewish community near Rome?

-Mike...

joedad

That is interesting, and an interesting hypothesis. These Roman jewish communities did speak greek and were in regular contact with Alexandrian communities and the influence of Philo.