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09-09-2009, 03:39 PM | #31 | |
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Messianic Claimants by one account
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09-09-2009, 04:13 PM | #32 | |
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09-10-2009, 12:54 PM | #33 | ||
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Josephus certainly describes God as the Lord. What he apparently never does in narrative is use 'Lord' as a straight name/synonym for 'God'. In the Septuagint we have continual uses of 'Lord' (Kurios) as a synonym for 'God' (House of the Lord, stood before the Lord, the Lord said, Word of the Lord etc). Josephus in reported speech has characters say 'Lord' when they mean 'God' and he once in a passage based on Isaiah uses 'Lord God' when he means 'God'. But that seems to be as far as it goes. The Septuagint is full of uses of 'of the Lord' (Kurios) as an equivalent to 'of God'. Josephus does not seem to use this construction at all. 'James the brother of the Lord' meaning something like 'James the brother of God' is just not a Josephan way of writing. Andrew Criddle |
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09-10-2009, 01:27 PM | #34 |
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Surely the Romans would be familiar with the mystery cult useage of the divine Lord (Kyrios/Adonai), son of the supreme deity Theos Pater. Jesus was Lord in the same way that Atargatis, Dea Syria, and Dionysos Dusares were Lord.
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09-12-2009, 02:51 AM | #35 | |
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IIUC Zindler's argument is that Josephus originally said "brother of the Lord" without any reference to at all Jesus, ie meaning something like "brother of Yahweh". IMO non-Jewish readers would have found this confusing. Andrew Criddle |
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09-13-2009, 07:01 AM | #36 | ||
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Would they have been confused by the brethren of Lord Mithras? Jake |
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09-13-2009, 07:31 AM | #37 | ||
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09-13-2009, 10:21 AM | #38 |
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It might be a masonic order.
http://books.google.com/books?id=ADo...ras%22&f=false Or maybe something to do with Hermetic or modern-day Gnostic types. Maybe he doesn't know either. DCH |
09-13-2009, 02:24 PM | #39 | |
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