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Old 08-12-2009, 07:59 AM   #491
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this is un-true. the more we study, the more accurate we find out our version of the NT is.
Actually this is untrue. I wrote earlier in this thread:

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No, the NT's 4+th century texts are the best preserved by far. Prior to the institutionalization of Christianity, text were copied by friends. Since Christianity spread among the poor, they usually couldn't pay a professional copyist to copy their works. Many times, the Christians who were doing the copying couldn't even read what they were copying; they were just copying the shapes. This period of early Christianity has the greatest variance among the extant manuscripts.
And that's only the "canonical" texts. We don't have a majority of the "heretical" texts. The "orthodox" accused the "heretics" of changing the "canonical" texts, but exactly which texts were orthodox or heterodox was determined by the Christianity that won the polemical battles of the 2nd and 3rd centuries. Was the Ebionite version of Matthew original, or was the Catholic version of Matthew original? We don't know.

If Constantine had decided to institutionalize Marcionism instead of Catholicism you'd be making the same exact argument in regards to Marcion's canon.
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Old 08-12-2009, 08:48 AM   #492
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this is un-true. the more we study, the more accurate we find out our version of the NT is.
Actually this is untrue. I wrote earlier in this thread:

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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy View Post
No, the NT's 4+th century texts are the best preserved by far. Prior to the institutionalization of Christianity, text were copied by friends. Since Christianity spread among the poor, they usually couldn't pay a professional copyist to copy their works. Many times, the Christians who were doing the copying couldn't even read what they were copying; they were just copying the shapes. This period of early Christianity has the greatest variance among the extant manuscripts.
And that's only the "canonical" texts. We don't have a majority of the "heretical" texts. The "orthodox" accused the "heretics" of changing the "canonical" texts, but exactly which texts were orthodox or heterodox was determined by the Christianity that won the polemical battles of the 2nd and 3rd centuries. Was the Ebionite version of Matthew original, or was the Catholic version of Matthew original? We don't know.

If Constantine had decided to institutionalize Marcionism instead of Catholicism you'd be making the same exact argument in regards to Marcion's canon.
of course they are best preserved. they started using vellum. However, they are un-necessary and your entire argument is rhetorical. Their is nothing in the NT (especially of eternal consequence) that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.

~steve
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Old 08-12-2009, 10:23 AM   #493
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However, they are un-necessary and your entire argument is rhetorical. Their is nothing in the NT (especially of eternal consequence) that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.
So your subjective definition of "well preserved" simply means "generally well preserved".
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Old 08-12-2009, 10:31 AM   #494
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However, they are un-necessary and your entire argument is rhetorical. Their is nothing in the NT (especially of eternal consequence) that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.
So your subjective definition of "well preserved" simply means "generally well preserved".
it means incomparably better preserved than all other ancient texts.
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Old 08-12-2009, 11:58 AM   #495
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No, not a couple hundred years. they are quoted often within that timeframe by people on different continents. they can be re-assembled by the quotes even without the fragments. which book of the NT are you referring to?
Every single book in the NT, as we know them, could easily be as late as the mid 2nd century, and we have no real idea when Christianity started. It could easily have existed in some form even hundreds of years BCE. There is so much speculation masquerading as knowledge in this topic, that Biblical history should perhaps be classified as a psuedo-science.

The late 2nd century saw a veritable cottage industry of Christian pseudepigrapha, so anything first mentioned in that time or later is highly suspect as bullshit.

Polycarp - often trodded out as evidence of early NT authorship; no mention of his works prior to Irenaeus. For all we know, Irenaeus wrote Letter to the Phillipians, or some other late 2nd century fraudster did it.

Ignatius - there is nothing attributed to him that is not seriously questioned by serious scholars.

Clement - the same. One by one works formerly attributed to him have been found to be frauds.

It's doubtful any of these three men ever even existed, since the idea of a serious church hierarchy prior to the Jewish/Christian split caused by the Bar Kochba revolt is anachronistic. These men were more than likely later inventions designed to demonstrate a continuous succession of authority all the way back to Jesus.

So that leaves us with p52, the range of which extends beyond 150CE.

The traditional datings of the NT books are based on apologetics and tradition, not solid scholarship.
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Old 08-13-2009, 12:04 AM   #496
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Their is nothing in the NT (especially of eternal consequence) that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.

~steve
There is nothing in the New Testament of eternal consequence.
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Old 08-13-2009, 05:19 AM   #497
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Their is nothing in the NT (especially of eternal consequence) that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.

~steve
There is nothing in the New Testament of eternal consequence.
restatement. There is nothing that the NT claims to be of eternal significance that cannot be verified either by early quote and/or fragments without these.
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Old 08-13-2009, 12:38 PM   #498
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Gday,

Luke 3:22
The words of God at the Baptism

Early MSS and quotes have the same as the Psalm :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou are my son, this day have I begotten thee"

But later versions have changed it to :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved son; in thee I am well pleased"

Here we see Christian scribes have CHANGED the very words of God, or the alleged words of God. And we know the reason - it supports the view called Adoptionism - later called a heresy.

In other words, Christian writers had no compunction about changing the supposed words of God himself, at a crucial time in the story. Clearly this does not represent anything real or historical.
There is an old joke about a preacher who wrote in the margin of his sermon notes: "Argument weak: speak louder." You give the appearance of using bolding in much the same way.

One fairly obvious problem with this argument is that the Gospel according to the Ebionites in the fragments preserved in Epiphanius has both of these sayings. The Gospel according to the Ebionites is clearly related to the Gospel of Luke, very probably having a source in common with it.

If Luke's source had both sayings, then the "You are my son the beloved, in you I am well pleased" is not a made up substitute for the Psalm 2 quote but an already existing tradition. There are multiple possible reasons why one version of Luke should preserve one saying from the baptism and a different version would preserve another. One that suggests itself is that there may have been two originals of Luke with different readings.

Peter.
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Old 08-13-2009, 01:05 PM   #499
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Gday,

Luke 3:22
The words of God at the Baptism

Early MSS and quotes have the same as the Psalm :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou are my son, this day have I begotten thee"

But later versions have changed it to :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved son; in thee I am well pleased"

Here we see Christian scribes have CHANGED the very words of God, or the alleged words of God. And we know the reason - it supports the view called Adoptionism - later called a heresy.

In other words, Christian writers had no compunction about changing the supposed words of God himself, at a crucial time in the story. Clearly this does not represent anything real or historical.
There is an old joke about a preacher who wrote in the margin of his sermon notes: "Argument weak: speak louder." You give the appearance of using bolding in much the same way.

One fairly obvious problem with this argument is that the Gospel according to the Ebionites in the fragments preserved in Epiphanius has both of these sayings. The Gospel according to the Ebionites is clearly related to the Gospel of Luke, very probably having a source in common with it.

If Luke's source had both sayings, then the "You are my son the beloved, in you I am well pleased" is not a made up substitute for the Psalm 2 quote but an already existing tradition. There are multiple possible reasons why one version of Luke should preserve one saying from the baptism and a different version would preserve another. One that suggests itself is that there may have been two originals of Luke with different readings.

Peter.
another problem (not to mention the issues with the specific point) is the use of early manuscripts as evidence of later changes only proves the point that we can be confident because we have early manuscripts.
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Old 08-13-2009, 01:15 PM   #500
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No, not a couple hundred years. they are quoted often within that timeframe by people on different continents. they can be re-assembled by the quotes even without the fragments. which book of the NT are you referring to?
Every single book in the NT, as we know them, could easily be as late as the mid 2nd century, and we have no real idea when Christianity started. It could easily have existed in some form even hundreds of years BCE. There is so much speculation masquerading as knowledge in this topic, that Biblical history should perhaps be classified as a psuedo-science.

The late 2nd century saw a veritable cottage industry of Christian pseudepigrapha, so anything first mentioned in that time or later is highly suspect as bullshit.

Polycarp - often trodded out as evidence of early NT authorship; no mention of his works prior to Irenaeus. For all we know, Irenaeus wrote Letter to the Phillipians, or some other late 2nd century fraudster did it.

Ignatius - there is nothing attributed to him that is not seriously questioned by serious scholars.

Clement - the same. One by one works formerly attributed to him have been found to be frauds.

It's doubtful any of these three men ever even existed, since the idea of a serious church hierarchy prior to the Jewish/Christian split caused by the Bar Kochba revolt is anachronistic. These men were more than likely later inventions designed to demonstrate a continuous succession of authority all the way back to Jesus.

So that leaves us with p52, the range of which extends beyond 150CE.

The traditional datings of the NT books are based on apologetics and tradition, not solid scholarship.

the possible date range of p52 is wider than you are stating. it is also important to note that p52 contains the gospel of John, believed to be the last writtenand that it was found in egypt 600 miles away from where it was believed to be written.

You also failed to mention Justin Martyr (early to mid 2nd century). late 2nd century is really not possible. you also are not going to get any reasonable person to buy that the church fathers of the 2nd century are mythological.
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