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02-11-2012, 04:35 PM | #51 | ||
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But it sounds as though becoming the Seed of David occurred only AFTER his body became bread and blood became wine, etc. etc. which means AFTER the crucifixion.
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02-11-2012, 04:36 PM | #52 |
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Speaking of Ignatius, why did the Byzantine church not adopt the Ignatian epistles into the canon the same way they adopted the Paulines? Certainly they could have made the Ignatians of importance equal to the Paulines from the first century.
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02-11-2012, 06:52 PM | #53 | ||
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If GMark followed the epistles, then in this particular issue GMark denies that his Jesus is a physical descendant of David (IF that is what the epistle writer actually meant), and Matthew and Luke seem to say the same thing:
Mark 12.35 And Jesus answered and said, while he taught in the temple, How say the scribes that Christ is the Son of David? 12.36 For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The Lord said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool. 12.37 David therefore himself calleth him Lord; and whence is he then his son? And the common people heard him gladly. I guess this creates a problem with GMatt and GLuke who has his Christ born in Bethlehem as a descendant of David. Quote:
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02-13-2012, 01:41 AM | #54 | |||
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02-13-2012, 02:36 AM | #55 |
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I don't know what you mean. The word "afterwards" apparently refers to the time after the Christ made known something. Not merely after the physical incarnation, which is already obvious from the fact of the gospel nativity. Ignatius is thus not revealing anything that is not already known unless it is not obvious.
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02-13-2012, 04:52 AM | #56 | ||
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02-13-2012, 07:31 AM | #57 | |||
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Thanks. I tried searching for "David" in that file but didn't find it. I also don't see what the connection would be between the bread and wine and being of the seed of David or Abraham. But such a statement from Ignatius would be unnecessary since Christians already know from the Epistle to Romans that their Christ was of the seed of David.
Is it possible the Ignatians were not included in the canon with the Paulines because they were written after the choice of the canon texts was already made, regardless of their attribution to the early 2nd century (and which could have easily been backdated into the end of the 1st century)? Quote:
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02-13-2012, 07:56 AM | #58 | |
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He doesn't even believe in the clap-trap that he produces, but it works well enough for his religious cronies purposes, and the yokels suck it up without objection, and that's enough for him. |
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02-13-2012, 08:13 AM | #59 | |
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02-13-2012, 11:44 AM | #60 | ||
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What would have made "Paul" more "kosher" then than "Ignatius" for purposes of inclusion in the canon by the fifth century?
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