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Old 05-18-2009, 04:05 PM   #1
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Default The Integrity of Isaiah

Integrity of Isaiah (chs.23-24 of A Survey of OT Introduction by Gleason Archer (or via: amazon.co.uk)

Thesis- Isaiah wrote his entire book as confirmed by Jesus, subject matter, grammatical language and style and theological themes.

The strongest argument for Isaiah authorship is from John 12. In this chapter does Jesus quote from several different parts of the book and he attributes the book as beign authored by one Isaiah. Critics often claim that the subject matter is different in the first half of the book (1-39) contemporary conditions than the second half (40-66) Babylonian exile so Isaiah could not have been the author of the second half. Critics have a point in that the subject matter is different, but the conclusion of the critics is what is the problem. Often in the Bible do prophets predict the future, and this is exactly what Isaiah is doing in the second half of the book as what so many also did in the Bible.

The second major argument in favor of Isaiah authorship is language and style. Critics claim that because language and style is different in the second half of the Book, then surely Isaiah must not be the author. However, what critics fail to see is that the style and language change because Isaiah’s situation has changed as well as his intellect. If you looked at a paper, I wrote 20 years ago you would conclude that I am not the author. However, since my life situation has changed as well as my literary genius, my language and style would be much different, but this does not mean that I am not the author. Critics need to look at Isaiah in the same way. In Shakespher’s work it is pointed out that his work has changed style 4 times in his 25 years of work. But still the work comes from Shakesphere.

The last proof of evidence for the integrity of Isaiah is the theological themes in the book. The theme has changed in the second half of the book to the suffering servant. Critics will claim that this is proof that Isaiah did not write the book, as the theme in the first half was different. But to the critic it must be argued that there are no contradictions in theology in the different sections, nor as the theology represented in the 2nd half not taught in germ at least in the first half.
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Old 05-18-2009, 04:07 PM   #2
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Perhaps you should slow down with the new threads. Give us time to discuss what you have already posted.
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Old 05-18-2009, 04:07 PM   #3
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Perhaps you should slow down with the new threads. Give us time to discuss what you have already posted.
Sorry my fault

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Old 05-18-2009, 04:07 PM   #4
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Welcome to FRDB, Bill. A word of advice though: you might want to slow down a bit and concentrate on the threads you've already started before starting another dozen; your plate is getting piled mighty high.

ETA: I type too slow. Sorry!
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Old 05-19-2009, 06:13 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bill Joey
Thesis - Isaiah wrote his entire book as confirmed by Jesus, subject matter, grammatical language and style and theological themes.
There is not a necessary correlation between authorship and the truth. What evidence do you have that Isaiah told the truth? For instance, what evidence do you have that Isaiah 53 refers to Jesus?

Consider the following:

http://www.simpletoremember.com/arti.../jewsandjesus/

Quote:
Originally Posted by simpletoremember.com

Christianity claims that Isaiah chapter 53 refers to Jesus, as the "suffering servant."

In actuality, Isaiah 53 directly follows the theme of chapter 52, describing the exile and redemption of the Jewish people. The prophecies are written in the singular form because the Jews ("Israel") are regarded as one unit. The Torah is filled with examples of the Jewish nation referred to with a singular pronoun.

Ironically, Isaiah’s prophecies of persecution refer in part to the 11th century when Jews were tortured and killed by Crusaders who acted in the name of Jesus.

From where did these mistranslations stem? St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of Nazianzus, wrote: "A little jargon is all that is necessary to impose on the people. The less they comprehend, the more they admire."

According to Jewish sources, the Messiah will be born of human parents and possess normal physical attributes like other people. He will not be a demi-god, nor will he possess supernatural qualities.

The Messiah must be descended on his father’s side from King David (see Genesis 49:10 and Isaiah 11:1). According to the Christian claim that Jesus was the product of a virgin birth, he had no father—and thus could not have possibly fulfilled the messianic requirement of being descended on his father’s side from King David!

The Christian idea of a virgin birth is derived from the verse in Isaiah 7:14 describing an "alma" as giving birth. The word "alma" has always meant a young woman, but Christian theologians came centuries later and translated it as "virgin." This accords Jesus’ birth with the first century pagan idea of mortals being impregnated by gods.

The most famous of all Jewish-Christian disputations was between the apostate Jew Pablo Christiani and Moses Nachmanides (the Ramban).

Nachmanides argued that the central issue separating Christianity and Judaism was not the issue of Jesus’ messiahship, but whether or not Jesus was divine. There was no basis in Judaism, Nachmanides said, for believing in the divinity of the Messiah or, indeed, of any man. To Nachmanides, it seemed most strange "that the Creator of heaven and earth resorted to the womb of a certain Jewess and grew there for nine months and was born as an infant, and afterwards grew up and was betrayed into the hands of his enemies who sentenced him to death and executed him, and that afterwards… he came to life and returned to his original place. The mind of a Jew, or any other person, cannot tolerate this." Nachmanides told the Spanish monarch, "You have listened all your life to priests who have filled your brain and the marrow of your bones with this doctrine, and it has settled with you because of that accustomed habit." Had King James heard these ideas propounded for the first time when he was already an adult, Nachmanides implied, he never would have accepted them.
At http://jewsforjudaism.org/index.php?...=48&Itemid=353, readers will find an article from "Jews for Judaism" that has 24 articles that show why Isaiah 53 does not refer to Jesus.
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Old 05-19-2009, 03:47 PM   #6
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[STAFFWARN]This is in the wrong forum. Prepare for transport...[/STAFFWARN]
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Old 05-19-2009, 03:56 PM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bill Joey View Post
The strongest argument for Isaiah authorship is from John 12. In this chapter does Jesus quote from several different parts of the book and he attributes the book as beign authored by one Isaiah.
One has to make some pretty heavy assumptions about both Jesus and the gospel of John in order to make this even qualify as an argument for Isaianic unity, let alone as the strongest argument.

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