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06-12-2008, 10:18 PM | #1 |
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Chili digression on Did Jesus Sin?
Much simpler would be to say that Jesus cannot sin because he is set free from the law because he fulfilled the law and was no longer a Jew as such . . . wherefore Pilate saw no fault in Jesus as MAN (repeated three times in John 18), while the Jews convicted him by THEIR law and their law only.
The law may have been inspired enough to turn Moses' hair white but it remains just a tool for the conviction of sin which is made against the steam of consciousness of the tribe that follows the law. The silly stuff they called sin has no bearing on reality but is good enough to convict the sinner wrong ("the law aroused in me all kinds of evil desire, etc)." |
06-13-2008, 05:56 AM | #2 |
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. . . and, of course, the purpose of this conviction is to set the inner man free by way of rebirth so that the old Joseph identity can be crucified to the sins of his world that actually become the cross that Jesus carried. It is upon this bundle of sins that the now apparent imposter must die and this will be how the illusory world of Joseph-the-Jew comes to an end and therefore must die and be burried to never be part of the new world again (Rev.21:1).
This then is when Galilee is left behind because that is not where the city of God is at except in Matthew to show that the NT is justified as a new vehicle for us to reach the end in a 'follow-me' (instead of 'worship me') kind of way. |
06-13-2008, 05:59 PM | #3 |
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. . . and, of course, the sins [of Joseph] that Jesus carried to Calvary is just opposite to the image of born again Christians soaring thru mid-heaven on their bundle of bible passage.
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06-14-2008, 06:47 AM | #4 |
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So would Jesus be free to murder, steal, commit adultery, etc., without sin? One would really hope that if he wishes us to behave ourselves--"do unto others as you would have them do unto you"--he would set a good example for us.
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06-14-2008, 08:44 PM | #5 | |
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Quote:
In reality it was not a physical event to start with but the presentation of the effect that religous law can have on people . . . wherefore Jesus fulfilled the purpose of the law that is an remains the heart of each and every myth and therefore is its enforcement also the pulse of the mythology. It can be added here that indulgences are superficial stimulants that worked well for the church when they were in effect (I might add here that religion is a human endeavor much like a game we play to serve as a means to the [final] end). |
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06-15-2008, 10:38 AM | #6 | ||
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The concept 'good' here has no opposite in bad which for Plato was the ultimate Form of the Good. Below that were the [daily] forms of the good that are created by the TOK in the confrontation between good and evil (the woman saw that the TOK was good for gaining things) wherein the primary premiss always originates from the Good and thus from God. The same it true with love, truth, and power wherefore the omni's belong to God (after all). |
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06-15-2008, 10:55 AM | #7 |
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I love theology, the ability to make stuff up as you go along, and actually watch it in progress is comedy relief.
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06-15-2008, 04:38 PM | #8 | |
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It was because Joseph left his 'kingdom' and returned to his native mind to give an account of himself that Christ was born unto him and that is why Jesus told him to part from his possession. The young man had no choice in this because one cannot consciously make this decision. |
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06-15-2008, 04:43 PM | #9 |
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In Catholicism they are called 'daily masses' that culminate in the Christ-mass which then is the final mass where original sin is forgiven. After this sin is no longer and thus he who is in Christ cannot sin (1Jn.3:9).
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06-15-2008, 07:34 PM | #10 |
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Do you believe that once we are dead, that's it? Just curious. Believe me, your opinions and beliefs are just as important as mine. Hopefully, we can exchange without insult.
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