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Old 10-06-2004, 08:46 AM   #31
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Another joyous reflection of the non-Aramaic source of the nt:

Let's return to the passage which talks about "the Boanerges, that is the sons of thunder". The Aramaic of the Peshitta has, BNY RG$Y ("sons of rage"), D'YTWHY ("that is") BNY R`M' ("sons of thunder"). You'll note that the original expression didn't mean "sons of thunder", but needs an explanation also in Aramaic, which is odd, as the text according to judge was translated out of Aramaic! So, why not simply say, "sons of rage" and not mimic the Greek? The text was translated from Greek, that's why.


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Old 10-06-2004, 04:24 PM   #32
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Originally Posted by spin
Another joyous reflection of the non-Aramaic source of the nt:

Let's return to the passage which talks about "the Boanerges, that is the sons of thunder". The Aramaic of the Peshitta has, BNY RG$Y ("sons of rage"), D'YTWHY ("that is") BNY R`M' ("sons of thunder"). You'll note that the original expression didn't mean "sons of thunder", but needs an explanation also in Aramaic, which is odd, as the text according to judge was translated out of Aramaic! So, why not simply say, "sons of rage" and not mimic the Greek? The text was translated from Greek, that's why.


spin
Sorry Spin, another blunder. As you have previously admitted your Aramaic is pretty poor you really should do some more study.
The original expression could neam either "sons of thunder " or "sons of rage" in Aramaic. So the Aramaic indicates that it is sons of thunder and not sons of rage.
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Old 10-06-2004, 04:26 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle

Not all of these examples are rock solid by any means but IMO they are of more significance in determining the text used by Aphrahat than the very minor agreements with the Peshitta which you quoted.

Andrew Criddle
Thanks Andrew, why not give a "rock solid" example or indicate which example is "rock solid", then we can deal with that.
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Old 10-06-2004, 04:29 PM   #34
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Originally Posted by spin
Does that surprise you?

Lot's of things have changed since the second temple, including Hebrew phonology. (How did semi-vocalic waw end up vav?? How did ab become av? Answer thesounds of the language were reinvented when Yiddish had effects on temple Hebrew and this latter was used as the guiding source for modern Hebrew.)

Got any more such desperate arguments?


spin
Spin it would be more professional if you could provide some evidence from time to time. Can you provide some evidence that first century palestinian hebrew language included the vowel sound and that first century palestinian aramaic did not include the vowel sound.
If you cannot provide this then I'm not sure your assertion is worth much.
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Old 10-06-2004, 04:46 PM   #35
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No the myth that the NT was penned in greek is a myth of the protestant church eagerly taken up by fundamentalists.
Hi Judge! I don't mind your arguing for the priority of the Peshitta, although I don't agree with you, but can you stop making these statements which are patently false? The Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches all believe that the NT was originally Greek. It is not a Protestant invention. Why did Jerome translate the Vulgate from the Greek, if he did not think that was the original language? Was Jerome a Protestant? Was Erasmus a Protestant?
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Old 10-06-2004, 05:28 PM   #36
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Originally Posted by ichabod crane
Hi Judge! I don't mind your arguing for the priority of the Peshitta, although I don't agree with you, but can you stop making these statements which are patently false? The Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches all believe that the NT was originally Greek. It is not a Protestant invention. Why did Jerome translate the Vulgate from the Greek, if he did not think that was the original language? Was Jerome a Protestant? Was Erasmus a Protestant?
Point taken WRT to Jeromes tranalation.
And of course the Eastern Orthodox churches.
I don't think in the Catholic tradition we find the same insistance and narrowmindedness on it that we find in protestant churches today.

I suppose in some sense both Protestantism and the Orhtodox Churches are sub sets of the Roman Church anyway.
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Old 10-06-2004, 10:58 PM   #37
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Sorry Spin, another blunder. As you have previously admitted your Aramaic is pretty poor you really should do some more study.
Sadly as you neither know Aramaic nor possess the requisite knowledge of Hebrew or linguistics, I don't feel you are in any position to comment. You wouldn't know a blunder in this field if you fell over one.

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
The original expression could neam either "sons of thunder " or "sons of rage" in Aramaic. So the Aramaic indicates that it is sons of thunder and not sons of rage.
As the text itself proves you wrong, you don't need a response, do you?


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Old 10-06-2004, 11:06 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by spin
Sadly as you neither know Aramaic nor possess the requisite knowledge of Hebrew or linguistics, I don't feel you are in any position to comment. You wouldn't know a blunder in this field if you fell over one.


As the text itself proves you wrong, you don't need a response, do you?


spin
Sorry Spin but you are still in error. Regnesh in Aramaic can mean either rage or it can mean thunder. It's particular use may have varied from locality to locality.
Thus anyone reading it may not know whether regnesh was meant to mean rage or thunder, thus an explanation is provided.
Your Aramaic is not up to it.

So again we have your claim but no evidence to back it up.
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Old 10-06-2004, 11:36 PM   #39
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Spin it would be more professional if you could provide some evidence from time to time. Can you provide some evidence that first century palestinian hebrew language included the vowel sound and that first century palestinian aramaic did not include the vowel sound.
If you cannot provide this then I'm not sure your assertion is worth much.
I understand your lack of certainty, given your lack of expertise.

The best way to understand the pronunciation of an ancient language is through its transliteration into other languages. The things that get transliterated are names, though the transliteration process is quite an arbitrary one depending on the ability of the hearer and the resources available in the target language, eg Greek doesn't have a SHIN sound so transliterators substitute a sigma. All this means that one needs a relatively large corpus to improve the statistical probability of reflecting original sounds. Such a corpus is the onomasticon found in the Hebrew bible as transliterated in the LXX and other Greek versions.

Think of all those names like Abiathar, Abraham, Abijah, Abigail, etc. They usually end up Aviathar, Avraham, in modern Hebrew. A waw is transliterated as upsilon, omicron-upsilon, or omega (when it represents a long vowel). Consider though the name Havilah, which should obviously be pronounced hawila from the Hebrew HWYL', is transliterated into Greek as euila, Havoth-Jair, hawot-jair, is transliterated into Greek as auwt iair, etc.

All you need is the linguistic training. It's all there plainly in the sources to be perceived.


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Old 10-06-2004, 11:40 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by judge
Sorry Spin but you are still in error. Regnesh in Aramaic can mean either rage or it can mean thunder. It's particular use may have varied from locality to locality.
Thus anyone reading it may not know whether regnesh was meant to mean rage or thunder, thus an explanation is provided.
Your Aramaic is not up to it.

So again we have your claim but no evidence to back it up.
I tell you what, to save all this, just show me your ancient evidence, as the explanation in Mk 3:17 seems to disagree with you. Until you can, you will be perceived as, umm, swimming against the current, flying in the face of the facts.


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