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Old 12-23-2005, 10:46 AM   #1
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Default Historical Accuracy of the Gospels

I have heard that one of the reasons to doubt the legitimacy of the Gospels is because they do not fit with history. Here are some examples I have heard:

Herod and Quirinus did not live at the same time (contradiction between Matthew and Luke).
The census is not mentioned in any Roman records, and even if there was one, Roman censuses were done differently (you reported in the town you lived in, not the town you were born in).
The evidence that Nazareth existed is vague (only mentioned in that manuscript that dates from after the destruction of Jerusalem)
The crucifiction (Roman courts would not have executed someone who was found innocent just so they could please the crowd)

My question is: is this true?
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Old 12-23-2005, 10:58 AM   #2
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"Incominnnnnng . . ." (ducks under desk).

(Really, though, do a search request on both the discussion board and II, in general, and you'll see alot of information devoted to these questions. In particular, read Carrier's discussion of the birth narrative from Luke.)
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Old 12-23-2005, 01:06 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by DanBZ
Herod and Quirinus did not live at the same time (contradiction between Matthew and Luke).
No, the contradiction is that Quirinus was not legate of Syria at the same time that Herod lived. Herod died in 4 B.C.E. and Quirinus did not become governor until 10 years later, in 6 C.E. Apologists claim that Quirinus was governor twice, but this has been refuted thoroughly.

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The census is not mentioned in any Roman records, and even if there was one, Roman censuses were done differently (you reported in the town you lived in, not the town you were born in).
Luke says the census was worldwide, but we know of no such census. We do know of a census that took place in 6-7 C.E. while Quirinus was legate of Syria, however. This is undoubtedly what Luke was thinking of. He may have remembered riots after Herod died and riots after the census and conflated the two events.

But we still have numerous problems with Luke's account of the census. First, the census would only affect Roman provinces, of which Galilee was not one (it was indirectly controlled by Rome through Herod Antipas, one of Herod the Great's sons). So there was no reason for Joseph to participate. Secondly, we know that in this census people were not made to go to their ancestral homes to register but to where they lived at the time. Furthermore, why would Joseph bring his 8 month pregnant wife with him on the long trek? Nothing of historical value can likely be found in this whole ordeal that Luke presents.

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The evidence that Nazareth existed is vague (only mentioned in that manuscript that dates from after the destruction of Jerusalem)
I'm not sure about this personally. I do know that the large majority of scholars don't have any issue with Nazareth existing during Jesus' time.

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The crucifiction (Roman courts would not have executed someone who was found innocent just so they could please the crowd)
The account of Jesus' trial and crucifixion is the most blatantly false account in the entire New Testament. To learn some objections to this, go to the following post on an old Historical Jesus forum that my NT professor Mahlon Smith used to post on. This was written by him on the subject of Jesus' trial and execution. It's relatively short.

http://groups.yahoo.com/group/crosstalk/message/1592

My favorite passage from the above link is this:

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In short, the whole synoptic description of Jesus' "trial" is a historically impossible fabrication: a deliberate lie designed to shift
blame for Jesus' death from Romans to Jews. I realize that this is strong language, but it must be said since, the "gospel account" of J's trial has been used by so-called Christians throughout history as justification for anti-Semitism. And modern Christians who try to defend its historicity to protect the reputation of the gospels as infallible sacred scripture are merely perpetuating that lie. I find it really ironic that many conservatives who are adamant about exposing Bill Clinton's private indiscretion, in which no one else was hurt, resist exposing the historical lies that have caused the suffering of so many over the past 2 millennia, simply because they were naively accepted as "the word of God."
During the Passover festival, Jews from all over came to Jerusalem. The large number of people made this an environment with potential for riots and the like. Pilate would have gone to the city with extra troops to make sure things were kept under control. The high priest (at the time Joseph Caiaphas) was considered directly responsible to the Roman governor (Pilate) for any problems, whether the high priest had anything to do with it or not. So if Jesus was causing any sort of trouble, this would undoubtedly force the high priest to hand him over to Roman authorities.

History tells us with rather high certainty that Pilate would have executed Jesus without hesitation, given his ruthless nature and the upcoming festival, and he certainly would not have been obedient and seemingly powerless to a Jewish mob. The fact that Jesus was executed under Pilate demonstrates that he was considered some sort of political threat or "rabble-rouser", and so was NOT convicted of blasphemy.
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Old 12-23-2005, 02:53 PM   #4
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Originally Posted by RUmike
The biggest *historical* problem is Mark's account of Jesus' midnight to dawn trial before the whole Sanhedrin right *after* the paschal seder (when they'd all had at least 4 cups of wine to drink & no coffee chaser).
Yet even Professor Lawrence Schiffman, an Orthodox Jew who is about as well versed in 1st century Judaism as anybody, and even has a bit of an "anti-missionary" background, specifically said that one would not have a good case against the night-time Sannhedrin trial. In a talk in Great Neck, Long Island, (at the time the Passion movie came out) Schiffman emphasized a number of different aspects in this regard. The rules laid out in the Talmud should not be taken as historical fact, and they would not necessarily have been followed. He pointed out that the Talmud has severe historicity problems, especially in areas like the timing of certain events, so it cannot be over-relied upon for any historical refutations.

Professor Schiffman emphasized that the Sanhedrin at that time was not a disciplined and holy group (my words.. also think of the fact that Jewish exegesis places the destruction of the Temple shortly thereafter as the result of "baseless hatred"). In all of this he emphasized that there really was not a case to be made against the unusual night-time Sanhedrin trial.

Then he emphasized that the Sannhedrin at that time was to a large extent beholden to, defacto a creature of, Rome, lackeys if you will. I was a little surprised at this view, but understood that it was an emphasis that would be well received in that environment (he was talking in a synagogue).

So to hear another historian use that as the
"biggest *historical* problem"
makes it look like the historian has some unreliable views.

Shalom shabbat,
Steven Avery
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic
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Old 12-23-2005, 03:00 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ
I have heard that one of the reasons to doubt the legitimacy of the Gospels is because they do not fit with history. Here are some examples I have heard:

Herod and Quirinus did not live at the same time (contradiction between Matthew and Luke).
I'm sure they did live at the same time.

Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ

The census is not mentioned in any Roman records, and even if there was one, Roman censuses were done differently (you reported in the town you lived in, not the town you were born in).
The census of 6 AD is mentioned in Roman records. Sadly Herod had been dead for 10 years when that census took place.

Joseph is not reported by Luke as having been born in Bethlehem. David was born in Bethlehem, which is why Joseph had to go there. (which makes it even more weird, of course)

Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ

The evidence that Nazareth existed is vague (only mentioned in that manuscript that dates from after the destruction of Jerusalem)
True, but this is an illegtimate argument from silence. There is no great reason why all small towns from the 1st century AD should be named somewhere.


Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ



The crucifiction (Roman courts would not have executed someone who was found innocent just so they could please the crowd)

My question is: is this true?
Pilate could well have acted the way he is portrayed in the Gospels. It is not impossible by any means.
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Old 12-23-2005, 03:06 PM   #6
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Yeah, I meant to say Herod and Quirinus did not rule at the same time.
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Old 12-23-2005, 04:59 PM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ
I have heard that one of the reasons to doubt the legitimacy of the Gospels is because they do not fit with history.
They don't agree with each other so how can they agree with history?:huh:
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Old 12-24-2005, 09:02 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by praxeus
So to hear another historian use that as the
"biggest *historical* problem"
makes it look like the historian has some unreliable views.
Because you cited one person who disagrees doesn't make my professor's views "unreliable".
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Old 12-24-2005, 09:39 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DanBZ
I have heard that one of the reasons to doubt the legitimacy of the Gospels is because they do not fit with history.
Legitimise them as what - historically accurate biographies? It is clear that they are not meant to be biographies. The gospel writers took the materials they needed to present the case for Jesus being the Messiah. It is unfortunate that fundamentalists have staked the authority of the Bible on it's supposed infallibility in historical matters. As far as I am aware not all Christians share that view.

What the gospels do is to present a broadly painted portrait of Jesus, a theologically informed portrait. They were written to inspire faith, not to provide material for scholarly dissertations.

I think that the broad historical outline contained in the gospels is reliable. For example, the trial and crucifixion. Scholars like Ed Sanders,and Geza Vermes have described the political and religious situation which provide the context for the execution of Jesus, i.e a puppet High priest, a volatile city, and a ruthless procurator, who would not fail to put down any show of political insurrection. Given that Jesus preached about God's kingdom, it was inevitable that something like what is described in the gospels would have happened.
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Old 12-24-2005, 12:10 PM   #10
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I have heard that one of the reasons to doubt the legitimacy of the Gospels is because they do not fit with history. Here are some examples I have heard
You don't even need to go that far. The fact that the gospels are so riddled with fanciful miracles discounts them from the historical record, as my post here demonstrates:

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According to Tacitus, Vespasian cured a blind man by putting spittle on his eyes:

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At Alexandria a commoner, whose eyes were well known to have wasted away ...fell at Vespasian's feet demanding with sobs a cure for his blindness, and imploring that the Emperor would deign to moisten his eyes and eyeballs with the spittle from his mouth.
... Vespasian .... did as the men desired him. Immediately the hand recovered its functions and daylight shone once more in the blind man's eyes. Those who were present still attest both miracles today, when there is nothing to gain by lying.-- The Annals of Imperial Rome, 4.81


Tacitus is considered by many to be one of the best if not the best ancient historian. He catologued his sources (sometimes), compared different accounts, and kept a sceptical eye towards many different facets of history. We know much about him from his works and what others wrote of him, and we have other works he did besides the Annals. His passage about Jesus is utilized by Christian apologists all the time to prove the existance of Jesus

John says that Jesus cured ablind man by putting spittle on his eyes:

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1 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth....

6 When he had thus spoken, he spat on the ground, and made clay of the spittle, and he anointed the eyes of the blind man with the clay,

7 And said unto him, Go, wash in the pool of Siloam, (which is by interpretation, Sent.) He went his way therefore, and washed, and came seeing.--John 9:1,6,7


We know virtually nothing about John, not even if the name attatched to the gospel was his actual name. We know of no other works definitvly written by him, who he wrote the gospel for, or anyone else who knew he was writing at the time. We know he could play fast and loose with the facts, and his account of the events of Jesus' life differs widely from that of the synoptics.

Why should I spurn the "eyewitness testimony" of the historian Tacitus on the curing of the blind man by Vespasian, but believe GJohn on the curing of the blind man by Jesus?
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