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			The standard view seems to be that Cephas and Peter are the same person, but why do we see Cephas and Peter listed separately in Gal 2, is this just a translational issue, or evidence of interpolation? 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	Quote: 
	
 http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=004...3E2.0.CO%3B2-P Thanks  | 
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		#2 | 
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			Peter and Cephas aren't the same person, but I'll get to that in a minute. Also, the article is being sent your way.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#3 | 
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			I want to remind everyone to take advantage of http://groups.yahoo.com/group/docexchange/ - a place Peter Kirby started and a place that I'd like to see used.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#5 | 
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		#6 | 
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			The reason why I didn't put it online because that would be a violation of copyright. But I'll need some more time to ingest his arguments.~
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#7 | 
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		#8 | 
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		#9 | 
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		#10 | 
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			Unfortunately I don't know how to post Greek letters, which is the main part that I need more help with.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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