ksen

KJV:

NKJV:

NLT:

NASB:

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Normally I use the KJV and go to other versions if I'm having a hard time understanding a verse(passage).

My wife brought this one to my attention last night and at first blush it seems to me that the KJV translations says something completely different than the other translations.

Can someone comment if it is just a difficulty with the King's english, was the KJV translated improperly, or are the other translation incorrect?

S.C.Carlson

Here is what the Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrinch lexicon has to say about this verse (p. 377 under the word ἐπιποθέω):
Part of the difference between the (N)KJV and the others is in the text. The two different verbs κατῴκισεν and κατῴκησεν sound the same in Byzantine (and modern) Greek. The NKJV translates the same text as the KJV, so its translational differences are due to a better rendering (into modern English) of ἐπιποθεῖ as "yearns" instead of "lusteth." I don't know whether "to lust" had a more positive meaning back in 1611 than it does today.

Stephen

ksen

Thanks S.C! :notworthy:

gstafleu

But what does the verse mean?

First, it points to "Scripture." The NASB seems to link this to Num 23:19, but I find it hard to see any relevance there. Does anyone have any idea which scripture is meant?

As for the verse itself, apparently either (1) the spirit yearns jealously for something unspecified, or (2) god yearns jealously over it. In case of (1), what does the spirit yearn for, assuming the greek that is translated as "yearn" is at least implicitly transitive--earthly pleasures, going by the context? if it is intransitive, what is the meaning of intransitive yearning? In case of (2), where god is doing the yearning, what does it mean that god yearns over the spirit? That he keeps a close eye on it, that it is important to him? If so, how does that relate to the context, other than as a general admonition?

Gerard Stafleu

Solo

I think the NASB might have intended a link to Num 22:19(-20).

I think the meaning comes through whatever grammatical or semantic challenges: (1) that "something unspecified" would be YHWH, (2) God would jealously guard the "spirit" for himself.

The cognitive context here is the familiar "can't serve two masters". The passage exhorts the believer to renounce worldly desires as precondition to being nearer to God.

Jiri

gstafleu

I can't say I see that as a great improvement...

So we have some ultra-economical use of language here, and the thing really means "The spirit that god has placed within us, and over which her carefully watches, yearns passionately for that god"? I don't know. If the spirit is so enthusiastic to do the right thing, why do we still succumb to earthly pleasures--generalized kata sarka badness?
The passage as a whole is pretty clear, the verse we are talking about seems rather confusatory, though.

Gerard Stafleu