Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic

Message to sschlicter: Consider the following post that I made today in sugarhitman's thread on slavery at the General Religious Discussions Forum:

Such being the case, it is reasonable to assume that a God did not inspire any writings about slavery in the Bible. Since the General Religious Discussions Forum is a better place to discuss those issues, I request that you reply to those arguments at the General Religious Discussions Forum. If you do, please including stating what God's motive was in making rules that protected slaves. It is doubtful that his motive was the welfare of slaves. If it was, he would not likely have injured or killed them. If a God exists, his motives are of the utmost importance. Many things that the God of the Bible does do not make any sense. If he does not exist, that explains why.

Discussing Old Testament slavery from a secular, historical perspective will not settle the much more important issues of whether or not God inspired any writings about slavery, and what his motive was for making rules that protected slaves. The majority of people at this forum are not interested in theological and philosophical issues. I am, and so are millions of other people.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

It is illegal to hire illegal aliens.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

I would not hire someone that is not allowed to work in this country.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

I have friends that work in this country illegally, just not for me.

Originally Posted by Exciter

Is that immoral?

Why not?

So do you find it isn't immoral to allow people who break the laws of your country as long as they are your friends?

Originally Posted by sschlichter

I have nothing to do with where he works and does not.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

The issue is not immigration law in america. The question is whether or not it is immoral to have laws that are applied different based on citizenry. The only issue that Johnny has with OT slave laws is the different applications.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

Can you tell me whether it is immoral that laws in this country are applied differently to different people? If not, then what is the difference between that and OT slave laws.

Originally Posted by Exciter

Do you feel he is immoral for breaking the laws of your country?

Originally Posted by sschlichter

What laws do you have concerning slaves in your country?

Originally Posted by sschlichter

actually, I do not think so.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

I think it is naive to expect other people to care about the country's laws.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

I think it is wrong for Americas that hire him so that they do not have to pay the minimum wage to someone else.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

You ignored the questions I posed to you that drew the parallels between functions and services in our time and slavery in the ANE.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

We have prisons and welfare - both ineffective.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

If someone is destitute and became a slave so they could eat, what else would have saved them in Isreal if slavery was illegal?

Originally Posted by sschlichter

actually, I do not think so.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

We have prisons and welfare - both ineffective.
How so?



Not to let them become poor and destitute in the first place.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

interesting, how do you propose that you prevent people from becoming poor and destitute in the ANE? Please be specific.

Originally Posted by Exciter

Now? It's quite impossible until someone builds a time machine. It is immoral to let people become destitute and then make them slaves.


what post was the question posed on the parallels you claimed I ignored?

Originally Posted by sschlichter

No, being destitute is the consequence of either not working or bad circumstances.

Originally Posted by sschlichter

How do you propose those destitute would have lived without slavery?