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Old 01-15-2006, 08:36 PM   #1
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Default Reasons why Sanhedrin 43a is not evidence of the HJ

For some reason Christians sometimes try to rewrite the bible using extrabiblical Judaic teachings as evidence that JC is the Jewish messiah that Christians want to believe he is.
The problem for these Christians is that Torah makes clear that JC is not and was not the Jewish messiah. Torah takes precedence over any other Jewish teachings. In addition, the Talmud (discussed later) has JC boiling in a vat of excrement as punishment for his sins. Based on these two facts alone, any analysis of Jewish tradition must begin with the assumption that any verses which may be judged to be proof of JCs messiah status must mean something else. Christians are making the mistake of trying to make the passages fit their beliefs rather than allowing the passages to shape their beliefs.

Now, with reference to Sanhedrin 43a and keeping in mind the two points I mentioned above which elimanate JC as a potential Jewish messiah, let's take a look at the problems with trying to turn this Talmudic tract into a pro JC testimony.

1) Sanhedrin 43a says that the five disciples were brought to trial. Is there any such claim in the GT? Answer? No.

2) Yeshua is a pretty common name (as is Mary and Joseph).

3) No herald went forth forty days before the execution.

3) JC was not stoned and hanged. He was crucified.

4) In the Synoptic Gospels is on Passover itself and not the eve of Passover.

5) As above, Yeshu lived a century before Jesus.
see http://talmud.faithweb.com/articles/jesusnarr.html

6) Jesus had no connection with the government. The word Malkut means kingdom or royalty. On another thread, a Christian tried to associate this word with JC as a way of proving that Sanhedrin 43a refers to JC. The Christian argued:

Quote:
The Hebraic word Malkut means either “royalty� or “kingship� rather than “government.� This adds a seventh concordance with Jesus:

7) Both Yeshu and Jesus were connected with the royalty – Jesus descended from King David, according to Paul, and the Sanhedrin knew it
The problem here is that the Sanhedrin did not "know it", that is if we are talking about JC. JC was not desended from king David. He couldn't be. Mary was an Aaronite and women could not pass on rights of kingship. Inheritance through Joseph was impossible since
a) His line was cursed and
b) Adoption was not a legal means of passing on rights of kingship and establishing lineal continuity.

7) Nowhere in the New Testament was Jesus charged with sorcery or leading Israel astray.
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Old 01-16-2006, 11:37 AM   #2
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I have doubts myself about the value of Talmudic material for HJ research.

However one must distinguish between the Talmudic passage in its present form and the Baraitas on which it is based.

At face value the Talmud claims that the passage
Quote:
On the Eve of Passover Yeshu was hanged. For forty days before the execution took place a herald went forth and cried "He is going forth to be stoned because he has practised sorcery and enticed Israel to apostacy. Anyone who can say anything in his favour let him come forward and plead on his behalf" But since nothing was brought forward in his favour he was hanged on the eve of Passover
originally existed independently of the rest of the section.

This passage is in all probability referring to the Christian Jesus, and it claims (as a Baraita) to go back to Tannaitic times ie 200 CE or before.

I'm not saying that it is a particularly strong case but the interesting discussion is about the meaning historical value etc of this Baraita not the historical value of the Talmudic passage in its present form.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 01-16-2006, 12:23 PM   #3
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Andrew - did you read the other thread? Personally, I had found it very plausible that the passage was an actual attestation for the HJ. I do not think that any more.
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Old 01-16-2006, 12:57 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Andrew - did you read the other thread? Personally, I had found it very plausible that the passage was an actual attestation for the HJ. I do not think that any more.
I agree that it is probably a response to Christian claims and doesn't really provide independent attestation of the HJ.

Do you agree that it is at least referring to the Christian Jesus and that the core of it (the Baraita) probably originated around 200 CE ?

Andrew Criddle
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Old 01-16-2006, 01:29 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
I agree that it is probably a response to Christian claims and doesn't really provide independent attestation of the HJ.

Do you agree that it is at least referring to the Christian Jesus and that the core of it (the Baraita) probably originated around 200 CE ?

Andrew Criddle
I'm not positive on the first one. It definitely evolved to refer to the Christian Jesus, placing its initial phase of its current form around 200 CE... There's the slight possibility from the disimilarities in the story that this Yeshua was confused with Jesus Christ and voila, you have the baraita. However, it could very well be what you said also.

Chris
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Old 01-16-2006, 03:58 PM   #6
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I seriously doubt that the Sanhedrin passage offers any independent attestation to an historical Jesus; nevertheless, I like to separate the stronger arguments from the weaker ones, and I see the following as weak:

Quote:
Originally Posted by noah
JC was not stoned and hanged. He was crucified.
The passage does not actually say that Jesus was stoned; it says that the herald said he was to be stoned, probably based on the OT punishment for sorcery in Deuteronomy 13.10. But in the end, according to the passage, he was really hanged.

Quote:
4) In the Synoptic Gospels is on Passover itself and not the eve of Passover.
Many scholars prefer the Johannine chronology to the synoptic, and this passage matches the Johannine.

Ben.
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Old 01-16-2006, 08:20 PM   #7
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Andrew, we've been through this argument before. It is rather uncritical to presume that every baraita is authentically of Tannaitic provenance -- particularly one such as this which has no mishnaic parallel. I stand by my previous remarks on the subject: here and here. I see no reason to believe that the rabbinic references to Jesus were anything other than reactions to Christian claims.

In the earlier thread, you conceded, "... I agree with you that the rabbinic material is of very little help." Have your views changed?
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Old 01-16-2006, 08:28 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Apikorus
In the earlier thread, you conceded, "... I agree with you that the rabbinic material is of very little help." Have your views changed?
I thought this is what Andrew said?

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
I agree that it is probably a response to Christian claims and doesn't really provide independent attestation of the HJ.
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Old 01-16-2006, 08:57 PM   #9
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Yes, but he seems to be pushing a date of ca. 200 CE or earlier for the baraita, which I think is without foundation:
Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
This passage is in all probability referring to the Christian Jesus, and it claims (as a Baraita) to go back to Tannaitic times ie 200 CE or before.
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Old 01-16-2006, 10:36 PM   #10
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I asked a Jewish associate of mine about the Christian penchant for citing Sanhedrin 43a. This is what he said:

Quote:
Using the Talmud as proof that he was messiah when all of their sources from the Talmud don't breath any word about Moshiach in that source is beyond me. In fact, I have been wrestling with the whole concept of why they even bother. I can think of two possibilities:

1) Using it as a justification for anti semetism. There are many anti sematic websites who use the Talmud as a proof that the Jews killed Jesus or general "dissing" of Jesus thus their hatred of Jews is justified. R' Gil Student's website takes this and counters it (i.e. it is writen from the point of view to answer these types of people).

2) Using it as a extra-Christological proof as to the existence of Jesus. This is somewhat doubtful especially for a Christian since the Talmud talks about in a timeframe 75-100 years before Jesus and doesn't involve Romans (or cruxifiction or claims to be the Messiah and/or son of G-d, etc.)
Interesting. No?
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