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Old 06-24-2005, 02:43 PM   #1
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Default The Eucharist and the Cross

Are these actually originally related or were they brought together later?

Does Holy Communion need a cross? There is not much blood or broken bodies about crucifixions!

When did the cross appear in xian art?
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Old 06-24-2005, 02:51 PM   #2
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Cross in pre-Christian and Christian art
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Old 06-24-2005, 06:01 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
Does Holy Communion need a cross?
According to the Didache, no, because that gives us a eucharist but makes no mention of a sacrificial crucifixion. Instead, it symbolizes the "vine" of David and the knowledge of Christ. IIRC, the broken bread is also described as a symbol of the numerous Christian communities.
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Old 06-25-2005, 01:28 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
According to the Didache, no, because that gives us a eucharist but makes no mention of a sacrificial crucifixion. Instead, it symbolizes the "vine" of David and the knowledge of Christ. IIRC, the broken bread is also described as a symbol of the numerous Christian communities.
Isn't this very important?

Isn't this clear evidence that key xian themes have different origins and were not introduced by a Jesus?
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Old 06-25-2005, 02:16 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
Isn't this very important?
It is peculiar at the very least.

From the Roberts-Donaldson translation at Peter Kirby's website:
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Chapter 9. The Eucharist. Now concerning the Eucharist, give thanks this way. First, concerning the cup:

We thank thee, our Father, for the holy vine of David Thy servant, which You madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever..
And concerning the broken bread:

We thank Thee, our Father, for the life and knowledge which You madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever. Even as this broken bread was scattered over the hills, and was gathered together and became one, so let Thy Church be gathered together from the ends of the earth into Thy kingdom; for Thine is the glory and the power through Jesus Christ for ever..

But let no one eat or drink of your Eucharist, unless they have been baptized into the name of the Lord; for concerning this also the Lord has said, "Give not that which is holy to the dogs."
Even more interesting, just before this the Lord's Prayer is given as something "the Lord commanded in His Gospel".

Frankly, I don't see how the dating range (50-120) helps make sense of this. Early or late, we've got a rather significant variation here.
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Old 06-25-2005, 11:34 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
According to the Didache, no, because that gives us a eucharist but makes no mention of a sacrificial crucifixion. Instead, it symbolizes the "vine" of David and the knowledge of Christ. IIRC, the broken bread is also described as a symbol of the numerous Christian communities.
There are two points that may be relevant.

a/ the author of the Didache probably knows the gospel of Matthew and hence the institution narrative given there for the Eucharist.

b/ there may be other evidence that the early versions of Eucharistic prayers did not necessarily involve reference to the words of institution.

Eg the ancient Syriac liturgy of Addai and Mari probably had in its earliest form.
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We give thanks to thee O my Lord even we thy servants weak and frail and miserable for that thou hast given us great grace past recompense in that thou didst put on our manhood that thou mightest quicken it by thy Godhead and hast exalted our low estate and restored our fall and raised our mortality and forgiven our trespasses and justified our sinfulness and enlightened our knowledge and O our Lord and our God hast condemned our enemies and granted victory to the weakness of our frail nature in the overflowing mercies of the grace. And we also O my Lord thy weak and frail and miserable servants who are gathered together in thy name both stand before thee at this time and have received by tradition the example which is from Thee, and may there come O my Lord thy Holy Spirit and rest upon this oblation of thy servants and bless and hallow it that it be to us O my Lord for the pardon of offences and the remission of sins and for the great hope of resurrection from the dead and for new life in the kingdom of heaven with all those who have been well pleasing in thy sight.
It is possible that the author of the Didache held an understanding of the Eucharist similar to that in Matthew but uses a very ancient Eucharistic prayer without reference to the gospel words of institution.

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Old 06-25-2005, 01:05 PM   #7
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
a/ the author of the Didache probably knows the gospel of Matthew and hence the institution narrative given there for the Eucharist.
Why would any Christian aware of the soteriological meaning given to the bread and wine by Christ, ignore it for something else?

Quote:
b/ there may be other evidence that the early versions of Eucharistic prayers did not necessarily involve reference to the words of institution.
I think this has less to do with the institution of the bread/wine meal than it does the institution of the soteriologically significant symbolism.

It seems to me that the explanation for this oddness has to involve an assumption that this portion of the Didache predates any Gospel story involving soteriological symbolism for the ritual meal and that it is a tradition independent of the one established by Paul.

I consider the parallels with Q to be significant. We find wandering prophets there as well as an absence of any hint of a belief in an atoning sacrifice. Jesus is revered as God's Wisdom (which corresponds to the thanksgiving for knowledge) and, arguably, considered to have been the Messiah (which corresponds to the "vine of David").

All of this seems to support the existence of an early (ie circa Paul but independent of him - perhaps those he complains about teaching "another Jesus"?) tradition that focused entirely on moral teachings, God's Wisdom incarnate and, arguably, messianic potential with absolutely no knowledge of or belief in an atoning sacrifice. In addition, there appears to be no knowledge of resurrection appearances. The Didache speaks only of the future appearance of the Lord.

Despite my fondness for theories of an entirely mythical Jesus, I cannot deny that this understanding this evidence as suggestive of an early alternate tradition to that taught by Paul and his predecessors appears to be best explained by a historical figure.
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Old 06-25-2005, 03:45 PM   #8
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Ellegard suggests someone 100BC....
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Old 06-26-2005, 02:39 AM   #9
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We have three threads here that I think are inter-related.

How is this for a summary?

At some point BC the concept of a messiah got firmed up into a heavenly Christ figure who had a heavenly sacrifice for our sins - in line with classic judaism and temple sacrifices. The concept of a eucharist also evolved - Hebrews and the discussion of blood is very important here.

I think Justin and others did not have access to the four gospels - they had not been written - the idea of a cross, a resurrection, a historical Jesus are all later ideas to resolve disputes that were going on.

The apostles are actually the Hebrew prophets.

Can we look at all the evidence we have as it is without assuming anything about how it fits together - especially not assuming the orthodox xian view of history and see what we have actually got?

It feels very different, for example I cannot see any real relationship between the Eucharist and the cross. This is a later splicing of different ideas.
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Old 06-26-2005, 09:52 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Why would any Christian aware of the soteriological meaning given to the bread and wine by Christ, ignore it for something else?
What I'm suggesting is that although the author of the Didache in its present form was probably aware of the significance given to the Eucharist by the synoptic Gospels, he is using a very early Eucharistic prayer independent of the Gospels and/or Paul
Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I think this has less to do with the institution of the bread/wine meal than it does the institution of the soteriologically significant symbolism.

It seems to me that the explanation for this oddness has to involve an assumption that this portion of the Didache predates any Gospel story involving soteriological symbolism for the ritual meal and that it is a tradition independent of the one established by Paul.

I consider the parallels with Q to be significant. We find wandering prophets there as well as an absence of any hint of a belief in an atoning sacrifice. Jesus is revered as God's Wisdom (which corresponds to the thanksgiving for knowledge) and, arguably, considered to have been the Messiah (which corresponds to the "vine of David").

All of this seems to support the existence of an early (ie circa Paul but independent of him - perhaps those he complains about teaching "another Jesus"?) tradition that focused entirely on moral teachings, God's Wisdom incarnate and, arguably, messianic potential with absolutely no knowledge of or belief in an atoning sacrifice. In addition, there appears to be no knowledge of resurrection appearances. The Didache speaks only of the future appearance of the Lord.

Despite my fondness for theories of an entirely mythical Jesus, I cannot deny that this understanding this evidence as suggestive of an early alternate tradition to that taught by Paul and his predecessors appears to be best explained by a historical figure.
IMO the Didache does give soteriological significance to the ritual meal, 'We give you thanks Holy Father for your holy name which you have caused to dwell in our hearts and for the knowledge and faith and immortality which you have made known to us through Jesus your servant.....to us you have graciously given spiritual food and drink and eternal life through your servant.' What it doesn't do is link that significance to Jesus' death.

Andrew Criddle
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