judge

I think this comment is fair enough. It is pretty plain from this discussion that Spin does not understand Aramaic. He has an armchair understanding of biblical hebrew and he uses this to make comment on Aramaic which is similar. But it means his comments often miss the mark.



You are right. Spin I apologise for this attack.

judge

Spin any comment here?

Are you still going to use this argument?

judge

The days of the week in Aramaic.

(1) Khad b'Shabba (first-of-seven)
(2) Treyn b'Shabba (second-of-seven)
(3) Tlatha b'Shabba (third-of-seven)
(4) Arbaa b'Shabba (fourth-of-seven)
(5) Khamsha b'Shabba (five-of-seven)
(6) Arubtha (setting)
(7) Shabtha (seventh)

I think Spin m,ay have apoint here though as this Christians changed the name of the sixth-day" from "Yoma Shtaa" to "Arubtha" so it seems unlikely that John could have meant friday at this time.

Still Spins contention that this somehow proves it was for a Roman audience is flimsy at best.

This explanation would be for anyone not familiar. As the gospel was intended to go out into all the known world there is no surprise this explanation is there. :down:

spin

On the mention of nomikos in Mt 22:35 and Lk 10:25:
I don't think Yuri is correct when he says the two verses are parallel, so no case can be made that nomikos comes from synoptic material. In the two instances, the only thing in common, beside the fact that someone is asking of Jesus, is the one word nomikos, nothing else in the language is the same.

You'll note that the term is in the singular and cannot be taken as the generic group indicated by nomikoi in the L material.

(Notice the periphrastic means used by the Peshitta to translate nomikos from Mt, xd mnhwn dyd( nmws), "one of them who knows the law", which would be, "one of them, an expert in law".)

Nothing has changed. We just see Yuri trying to make his position exempt from the problem.


spin

spin

These are not in themselves names of days of the week. They are merely descriptive, with the exception being the Shabbat.

(It all sounds like the Borg.)

Christians, huh? I guess that explains how the term (rwbt) got to be used in rabbinical literature, hmmm? (Check out page 1114 of Jastrow's Dictionary of the Targumim, the Talmud Babli and Yerushalmi, and the Midrashic Material, vol.2.)

I'll let other people, umm, judge. If it were a lone case, then you might have an argument, but you have conveniently overlooked the other examples which show the trend in explanation. Remember for example the explanation of the court, "that is the praitwrion", using the Greek rendering of the Roman 'praetorium", and the Aramaic uses the Greek form to get pr+wryn. This explanation is specifically for a Roman audience and, while many Romans learnt Greek, very few ever knew Aramaic.

You'll note that the parallels in the synoptic tradition don't handle the information the same way: Mt 27:57 simply leaves it all out, mentioning only that it was evening; Lk says it "was the day of preparation and the sabbath was dawning", repackaging the material so it wasn't an explanation.

We are left with Mark being the source of such famous explanations as the court which is a praetorium, the two leptas which are a quadrans, the day of preparation which is before the Shabbat, and "my God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"

It doesn't help to forget about all the other examples and concentrate on only one. It is merely an effort at obfuscation.


spin

Yuri Kuchinsky

They are, according to Aland's Synopsis. Unit #282, THE GREAT COMMANDMENT.

Regards,

Yuri.

Chris Weimer

Easy, Yuri, one's asking him about eternal life and one's asking about the greatest commandment. Obviously, Matthew, the more Jewish of the two, is inquiring about the commandments, while Luke is focused on the Gentile concept of eternal life. It reflects, though, two different sources, and not exact parallels.

judge

Irrelevant whether or not the word existed , or a similar one.
They can still change the name of a day oif the week.

Wrong again Spin. It says the "courtyard that was the praetorium"

As you are still too embarrassed to tell us your experience or lack of with Aramaic will will have doubt you.

Are you prepared to be upfront with us yet and clearly explain your experience with Aramaic?

No you don't wish to tell us? I wonder why?

Chris Weimer

judge, now you're off the deep end, the praitwrion IS the praetorium, one is Latin, the other is Greek. :banghead:

judge

Anyone interested in seeing just how much Aramaic spin really understands can make their own enquiries here.

Find an Aramaic speaker and ask them what they use.