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05-04-2010, 07:19 PM | #1 | |
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The "Historical Jesus" and the relevance of (non negatory) Historical Revisionism
Historical Revisionism
In the context of Historical Revisionism (of the non negatory form) it might be claimed that the paradigm of the "Historical Jesus" needs to be entirely overhauled (perhaps even dismantled) in the light of the absence of any unambiguous evidence from a number of contributory fields to the field of Ancient History, including the manuscript tradition and the field of archaeology. While many people are content to postulate that the "Historical Jesus" either did not exist or was most likely an entirely fictional and/or fabricated character, not too many people are willing to make the attempt to sketch out a replacement or Revisionist [profane political] History that explains how this state of affairs actually came to be. To what extent is Historical Revisionism relevant to BC&H and the question of the "Historical Jesus"? And in using the term I am referring to the non negatory meaning of the term. (See the disambiguation pages for the differences) Quote:
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05-05-2010, 06:01 AM | #2 | ||
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The worship of a man as a God was probably the ONLY thing that could NOT have been done by a Jew before the Fall of the Temple in the 1st century. [B]Philo a Jew from Alexandria a supposed contemporary of the so-called Jesus DESTROYS the notion that Jesus could have just a man, just a Jew, who was worshiped as a God by Jews. This is found in "On the Embassy to Gaius"XVI Quote:
The historical Jesus where a man, a Jew, was worshiped as a God by Jews has self-destruct by the DIRECT EVIDENCE of Philo. The historical Jesus has been destroyed by a JEW who was alive at the time of the Emperor Tiberius and the governorship of Pilate. These are the words of Philo...."it would have been easier to change a god into man, than a man into God...." Philo has destroyed the historical Jesus forever. |
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05-06-2010, 07:51 PM | #3 |
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Philo wrote in the 1st century and Eusebius in the 4th. Did Constantine and Eusebius resurrect Philo's destroyed Jesus? Was Jesus existent in the 1st century so that he could be destroyed by Philo, or was Jesus non existent in the first century? If Jesus was non existent in the 1st century how on earth could Philo destroy his "historicity"?
If the Historical Jesus did not exist then it appears to me we need to look around for another historical scenario by which we can explain the appearance of the Jesus cult in the 4th century corresponding to the massive publication of the new testament at that time. And finally, if the genre of the new testament story is to be associated with genre of the stories about "Harry Potter" and "The Lord of the Rings" then who was the behind-the-scene author and publisher, what was the reason for the publication, who stood to gain the most from the publication and what was the detailed history of the epoch in which the publication of the NT story first "hit the streets". It seems to me that one thing is abundantly clear. If the "Historical Jesus" is a fiction and/or a myth, then someone or some select party of people have gone to a great deal of trouble to twist the ancient historical truth of "Early Christian Origins". What were these "twists" in the historical truth? Can they be perceived from the available evidence and the technological and scientific standpoint of the 21st century? |
05-06-2010, 08:26 PM | #4 | |||
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Philo has destroyed THE IDEA of the historical Jesus forever. Philo has destroyed the idea that a man could have been worshiped as a God BY JEWS in the 1st century before the Fall of the Temple during the reign of Caligula who also WANTED JEWS TO WORSHIP HIM AS A GOD. According to Philo it was far easier to change a GOD to a man than a man to a God. And that is exactly what the inventors of Jesus did. The inventors followed the advice of Philo and fabricated Jesus as a God who became man. These are the words of Philo. "On the Embassy to Gaius" Quote:
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Now, Eusebius presented a MYTH as history in the 4th century using fiction as his corroborative source. This a partial list of the writers used by Eusebius or writings probably forged, wholly or in part, under the name of Ignatius, Papias, Irenaeus, Tertullian, Polycarp, Luke, Mark, Matthew, John, Paul, James, Jude, and Origen. |
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05-06-2010, 09:29 PM | #5 | |
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(1) 000 to 324 CE - what was the actual history which Eusebius perverted? (2) 324 to 337 CE - the life of Constantine and Eusebius and the dramatic changes that were wrought in this segment. (3) 337 to 500 CE - the aftermath of the impact of the implementation of Christianity (based on the NT) and the Eusebian "Christian Origins myth". Most discussions in this forums have concentrated on segment (1). Your summary above refers to this segment. Segment (2) represents a "Black Hole" of sources - Imperially sponsored orthodox "Christian historians" have claimed this terrain as their own for the last 16 centuries, since their accounts are the only ones extant. (They destroyed all other sources) Segment (3) is to be characterised by a political history of the 4th and 5th centuries in which the "orthodox imperially sponsored Christian histories" need to be offset by the "pagan and Gnostic sources", and in which the Arian Controversy is to be explicated by means of a simple political model. |
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