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09-10-2011, 02:56 AM | #11 |
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I can't see how he does either. That's the issue.
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09-10-2011, 07:13 AM | #12 | |
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Very interesting observations on the Just references Don.
Somewhat related, check out the wiki comments on the NT and Nazarites: One might note that in GMark Jesus does not drink wine at all until just before his death when vinegar is offered to him. The early Christian community seems to have had strong ties to Nazirites. Quote:
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09-10-2011, 08:13 AM | #13 | |
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It is SIMPLY highly illogical that the Church would have Canonised ALL KNOWN HERETICAL writings while Church writers claimed it was Heretical to TEACH that Jesus was a man. It is just total nonsense that James had a STRONG connection with Jesus. There is ZERO evidence that it actually was James an apostle who wrote the epistle. The epistle appears to be REALLY ANONYMOUS and was supplied with a BOGUS author by those who seem to be LYING for the glory of God. If you can't show who wrote the epistle and when it was written then please don't tell US anything about "JAMES". WE know what the epistle contains in the EXTANT Codices. What you BELIEVE is really irrelevant for it is NOT history or corroborated by credible sources of antiquity.. |
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09-10-2011, 08:18 AM | #14 | |
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09-10-2011, 08:24 AM | #15 |
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09-10-2011, 08:27 AM | #16 | |
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The writing evidently originates ouside of Palestine (probably toward the end of the 1st century) and asserts unmistakably a point of view that rivaled Paul's, broadly representing the Jewish Christian point of view formed post-70. The writer's of the epistle seems vaguely aware that James was a leader of a messianic community in Jerusalem and reads its own views as his presumed theology. (Note the address of this pseudo-James in 1:1 belies any tradition existing at that point that he was the brother of Jesus). One interesting aspect of this epistle is that it was not very popular in the patristic church and was being accepted into the canon only over strong objections (of Eusebius, i.a.). Luther later called it famously "the epistle of straw" and wanted it thrown out, as it contradicted the "faith alone" theology of Paul. James seems to be aware of Matthew's gospel. It speaks of the "poor" and as the "heirs of the kingdom" in 2:5 echoing Mt 5:3, and 5:12 essentially restates Mt 5:34-37. Perhaps the strongest anti-Pauline line in James 2:10 parallels Mt 5:19 with added emphasis. These "sermon" traditions were not recorded by Mark, because part of the sermon itself looks like a critique of Mark and Paulinism and because his community had its own values which differed sharply in key points. (Other than the law saying, see e.g. what Mark did with the maxim of not giving "what is holy to the dogs" (Mt 7:6) in the story of the Syrophoenician woman (Mk 7:25-30)). So I would be very skeptical if the epistle of James originated in a Markan community. Best, Jiri |
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09-10-2011, 09:05 AM | #17 | |
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What community, when was Mark in that community, what was the actual values of the community ? People's imagination seem to running wild here. |
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09-10-2011, 10:48 AM | #18 |
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09-10-2011, 11:01 AM | #19 | |
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It cannot continue day after day where people here are continuously making blunder after blunder as if they have NOT learned anything after being on BCH for years. It is NOT known who actually wrote the epistle of James, when it was written, the circumstances under which it was written nor in which community it was written. Based on TedM, there is very little about Jesus in the epistle. TedM's own words has DESTROYED his own claim that there is a strong James-Jesus connection. TedM cannot establish when the epistle of James was written so his PRESUMPTION is NOT even logical. It is also possible that the author of the epistle COPIED his information about Jesus from the same fables found in gMatthew of the NT. |
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09-10-2011, 11:21 AM | #20 | ||
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solo, thanks for your thoughts. Good to have the scholarly view, although I think it may be very wrong and can share more on that later.
Simple questions: 1. Why would this Christian epistle that alludes to more of Jesus' sayings than any other epistle not say that they were from Jesus originally if it was written after the Jesus' sayings were known? 2. Why didn't the epistle even allude to conflict with Paul if was written after such conflict? 3. Why didn't this epistles to Jewish Christians mention the destruction of Jerusalem if it was written afterwards? 4. Who is this James that it is written by and why in world would he need to identify himself as Jesus' brother if he was their leader whom they already were familiar with? Quote:
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