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Old 02-10-2006, 01:26 AM   #1
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Default Is the underlined from this Wikipedia article correct?

Is the underlined from this Wikipedia article correct?

For instance, Mark 1:1 has been found in two different forms. Half of the discovered texts before the 2nd century contain the phrase "Son of God", while half do not. (NB: The article "the" is not present in Greek MSS; it was instead added to English translations for flow and compatibility with Church doctrine. "A Son of God" would also be a correct translation, as would the omission the article entirely.)

We have texts of containing this portion of Mark from before the 2nd century?
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Old 02-10-2006, 05:18 AM   #2
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We don't have any MSS of the gospel Mark prior to the Codex Sinaiticus (mid 4th century). However, fragments of the gospel were quoted by Christian Fathers in the mid- to late-2nd century. Wikipedia must be in reference to the latter.
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Old 02-10-2006, 06:36 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoyJuice
We have texts of containing this portion of Mark from before the 2nd century?
No. Even the fragmentary 7Q5, which has incorrectly be put forth as a first text of Mark, does not cover Mark 1:1. (Supposedly, 7Q5 is the bit from Mark 6:52-3).

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Old 02-10-2006, 06:37 AM   #4
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Originally Posted by ynquirer
We don't have any MSS of the gospel Mark prior to the Codex Sinaiticus (mid 4th century).
P45, which has large portions of Mark among its surviving leaves, is about a century older than Sinaiticus. It is the oldest surviving MS of Mark.

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Old 02-10-2006, 08:20 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
P45, which has large portions of Mark among its surviving leaves, is about a century older than Sinaiticus. It is the oldest surviving MS of Mark.
That’s true, Stephen. But I rather thought of the first text including Mark 1:1, and that is Aleph so far. P45 includes two fragments of Mark – 4:36-9:31 and 11:27-12:28 – neither of which covers the questioned verse.

When rereading JoyJuice’s post, something strikes me as odd. It says “texts before the 2nd century.� Before the 2nd century is the 1st century, and for the 1st century there is not anything at all: not great uncials, not papyri, not even Church Fathers.

On the other hand, I’ve checked JoyJuice’s link to Wikipedia, to no avail: I haven’t found the text he quotes. Are you sure the link is ok?
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Old 02-10-2006, 10:09 PM   #6
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Here's the correct link.
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Old 02-10-2006, 11:29 PM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ynquirer
That’s true, Stephen. But I rather thought of the first text including Mark 1:1, and that is Aleph so far. P45 includes two fragments of Mark – 4:36-9:31 and 11:27-12:28 – neither of which covers the questioned verse.

When rereading JoyJuice’s post, something strikes me as odd. It says “texts before the 2nd century.� Before the 2nd century is the 1st century, and for the 1st century there is not anything at all: not great uncials, not papyri, not even Church Fathers.

On the other hand, I’ve checked JoyJuice’s link to Wikipedia, to no avail: I haven’t found the text he quotes. Are you sure the link is ok?
Sorry, correct link, but wrong page. Chris Weimer has provided correct page.
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Old 02-11-2006, 05:14 AM   #8
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What is half of zero?
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Old 02-11-2006, 06:37 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ynquirer
That’s true, Stephen. But I rather thought of the first text including Mark 1:1, and that is Aleph so far. P45 includes two fragments of Mark – 4:36-9:31 and 11:27-12:28 – neither of which covers the questioned verse.
If you're limiting it to the first MS including Mark 1:1, then you're right that the earliest surviving MS with 1:1 is Aleph/01 (or the contemporary Vaticanus/B, depending on how they're dated relative to each other).
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Old 02-11-2006, 11:50 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Here's the correct link
Thank you, Chris. How do you manage to track the whole Wikipedia website?
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