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Old 01-03-2009, 08:44 AM   #81
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I am not sure I am understqanding you aright when you say "redaction (no sources)" and redaction probably does not occur in eyewitness testimony unless the eyewitness is "making things up."

The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language has:

re·dac·tion (r-dkshn) n.
1. The act or process of editing or revising a piece of writing; preparation for publication.
2. An edited work; a new edition or revision.

Usually it would be understood that the work being edited or revised is written literature. Or were you referring to oral sources?

There is also no hint in a definition like this that there is any conscious effort made to make things up. Fiction writers, even when they base the story on actual historical events and people, are never said to redact the historical sources.

I agree with you, though, that "handed down" does imply an oral tradition. Is this more a discussion about the probative value of "hearsay" evidence, as this term might in some definitions include eyewitness testimony?

DCH

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As I understand every dictionary I've checked, the word "tradition" doesn't refer to that sort of thing.
What would it be, then? It seems to me that if you have something "handed down," you have tradition. "Tradition" is usually contrasted with "redaction" (no sources), but talking to an eyewitness isn't redaction (unless the "eyewitness" is making stuff up).

Stephen
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Old 01-03-2009, 09:51 AM   #82
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chances are that you - if you are over sixteen - have come across a disturbed person who believed the world was going to end soon and that he knew how to extricate himself (and you, of course) from the universal predicament.
I've not only come across such people, I used to be one of them.
Welcome to the club ! :wave:

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Easy. You see "the idea" of general perdition itself occurs ONLY in mentation associated with frank or obscured psychosis.
You say so. How about psychiatrists? Do they say the same thing?
I have paraphrased a psychiatrist.

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We simply do not have a model of a "healthy" brain, that arrives at such a conclusion by analyzing dispassionately scientific data.
I agree with that. I don't agree with the apparent supposition that only diseased brains arrive at conclusions by means other than dispassionate scientific analysis.
I put the quotation mark around the healthy brain. The brain chemistry is itself a mystery. A psychosis (which the modern neuropsychology nearly always assumes reflects an underlying electro-chemical process in the brain) need not have pathogenic origins such that they always warrant a prognosis of a lasting debilitating disorder. Some psychoses have organic origins. Some are easily induced in a "defect-free" brain by psychoactive substances, sensory deprivation or meditation techniques. Some are brought about by specific psychological sensitivities, like proneness to anxiety, that are often hereditary. Some are crises which resolve themselves only to be repeated because their root cause persists.

Under normal "chemical" regime the brain assesses dangers, including dangers from specific actions or lack of them. It will not conjure apocalyptic scenarios as there is no point in exaggerating dangers. For the apocalypse, different "informing sources" will be required. If you read e.g. Luke's "sensing the end" (Luke is not Paul, but falls into the literary genre of the Jesus psychodrama) you can see a couple of interesting embellishments he put (in ch 21) into the apocalypse account by Mark. Luke's Jesus adds to Mark's directions how to deliver testimony of him before kings and governors. Mark's J. admonishes not to be "anxious" about what to say, promising that the message will be supplied by the Holy Spirit. Luke makes it more personal - Jesus will supply the words and the wisdom such that no-one will be able to "withstand or contradict". Did Luke have an informing source different from Mark ? I would say, yes, Luke's Jesus unlike Mark's points at anxiety obliquely, not as a scary thaumaturg but a detached debating stoic. But the Markan description of pressure of speech that manics know, as a gift of Holy Spirit and a testimony of Jesus, stands as Luke understands all too well Mark's metaphor. Removing the visceral frenzy from Jesus, Luke adds a gem of a revelation in the apocalypse by disclosing men fainting with fear and foreboding of what is coming on the world (21:26)

Pretty scarry stuff ? The question of course is: to whom.

Jiri
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Old 01-03-2009, 09:54 AM   #83
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As I understand every dictionary I've checked, the word "tradition" doesn't refer to that sort of thing.
What would it be, then? It seems to me that if you have something "handed down," you have tradition. "Tradition" is usually contrasted with "redaction" (no sources), but talking to an eyewitness isn't redaction (unless the "eyewitness" is making stuff up).

Stephen
I think "tradition" refers to stories that may theoretically be based on eyewitness testimony, but most likely are highly embellished, if there is any basis at all to them.

NT scholars seem to be unique in assuming that oral tradition can be used as a basis for historical claims. I had a long discussion with Chris Weimer on this, but he never produced any other discipline that treated oral tradition, or folklore, as a source of historical facts.
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Old 01-03-2009, 10:24 AM   #84
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I think "tradition" refers to stories that may theoretically be based on eyewitness testimony, but most likely are highly embellished, if there is any basis at all to them.

NT scholars seem to be unique in assuming that oral tradition can be used as a basis for historical claims. I had a long discussion with Chris Weimer on this, but he never produced any other discipline that treated oral tradition, or folklore, as a source of historical facts.
Generally the opposite - more of the Headless Horseman chasing Ichabod Crane variety than any actual history.
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Old 01-04-2009, 08:35 AM   #85
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Isn't getting information by talking to a (supposed) eyewitness a kind of oral tradition?
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As I understand every dictionary I've checked, the word "tradition" doesn't refer to that sort of thing.
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What would it be, then?
Testimony.
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Old 01-04-2009, 08:49 AM   #86
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I have paraphrased a psychiatrist.
I don't know enough psychiatry to even paraphrase anything, let alone offer an informed critique.

I do have a nodding acquaintance with history, though, and it informs me that one of the most dangerous memes ever propagated is the notion that only crazy people can believe X, when there happen to be lots of people who believe X.

Back when there was a Soviet Union, they used to lock political dissidents up in psychiatric hospitals. It was the logical thing to do, given an understanding that no one in his right mind could doubt the truth of Communist doctrine.
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Old 01-04-2009, 10:49 AM   #87
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What would it be, then? It seems to me that if you have something "handed down," you have tradition. "Tradition" is usually contrasted with "redaction" (no sources), but talking to an eyewitness isn't redaction (unless the "eyewitness" is making stuff up).

Stephen
IIUC information obtained from talking to a supposed eyewitness is referred to as "oral history" and distinguished from "oral tradition" where the relation of the informant to the original event is less direct.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 01-04-2009, 11:53 AM   #88
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There is also no hint in a definition like this that there is any conscious effort made to make things up. Fiction writers, even when they base the story on actual historical events and people, are never said to redact the historical sources.
It is not possible for a fictional account to be an actual historical account. That is a complete contradiction.

Once a work has been declared fictional by the author, all similarities to actual historical events, people and places must be deemed co-incidental.
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Old 01-04-2009, 02:09 PM   #89
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I thought I was simply asking Stephen why he used the word "redaction" and "made up" in the same sentence.

Of course fiction, the specific plot of which is made up, is not the same as a historical narrative, but historical narratives vary in type and in details. As Stephen knows, even eyewitness accounts of the same events invariably vary for a rather wide range of reasons. The narratives of a Japanese infantryman and a US marine concerning the same battle for Iwo Jima in WW2 will be two very different stories. When the narrative is written down, even by eyewitnesses, additional considerations affect the truth value of the document.

Editors may also make changes to a narrative to make the account more "readable," such as juxtaposing events or leaving out "unimportant" (to the editor) details, or adding commentary or explanations or "color" to jazz it up, or change the plot or details of the story to push a private agenda. That is why I asked Stephen about "hearsay" (probably not the best term for me to have used) and whether redaction necessarily means "making things up."

DCH

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There is also no hint in a definition like this that there is any conscious effort made to make things up. Fiction writers, even when they base the story on actual historical events and people, are never said to redact the historical sources.
It is not possible for a fictional account to be an actual historical account. That is a complete contradiction.

Once a work has been declared fictional by the author, all similarities to actual historical events, people and places must be deemed co-incidental.
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Old 01-04-2009, 03:00 PM   #90
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I thought I was simply asking Stephen why he used the word "redaction" and "made up" in the same sentence.

Of course fiction, the specific plot of which is made up, is not the same as a historical narrative, but historical narratives vary in type and in details. As Stephen knows, even eyewitness accounts of the same events invariably vary for a rather wide range of reasons. The narratives of a Japanese infantryman and a US marine concerning the same battle for Iwo Jima in WW2 will be two very different stories. When the narrative is written down, even by eyewitnesses, additional considerations affect the truth value of the document.
The differences in narratives would not alter the fact there was a battle for Iwo Jima in WW2. The two different stories would still be chronologically sound, that is, they both will claim there was a battle at a certain time.

Now, what "eyewitness account" with respect to Jesus or Paul is chronologically sound?
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